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Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments

  • Install, upgrade, and migrate servers and workloads
  • Install and configure Nano Server
  • Create, manage, and maintain images for deployment

Implement Storage Solutions

  • Implement server storage
  • Implement data deduplication

Implement Hyper-V

  • Install and configure Hyper-V
  • Configure virtual machine (VM) settings
  • Configure Hyper-V storage
  • Configure Hyper-V networking

Implement Windows Containers

  • Deploy Windows containers
  • Manage Windows containers

Implement High Availability

  • Implement high availability and disaster recovery options in Hyper-V
  • Implement failover clustering
  • Implement Storage Spaces Direct
  • Manage failover clustering
  • Manage VM movement in clustered nodes

Implement Domain Name System (DNS)

  • Install and configure DNS servers
  • Implement and Maintain IP Address Management (IPAM)

Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions

  • Implement virtual private network (VPN) and DirectAccess solutions

Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure

  • Implement high performance network solutions
  • Determine scenarios and requirements for implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN)

Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

  • Install and configure domain controllers

Implement identity federation and access solutions

  • Install and configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Implement Web Application Proxy (WAP)

Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network List Manager Policies are security settings that you can use to configure different aspects of how networks are listed and displayed on one computer or on many computers. Network List Manager Policies are not related to DNSSEC.

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the registration.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B. From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C. From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D. From IPv4, create a new filter.
E. From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F. From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G. From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H. From Scope1, create a reservation.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will
attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The Docker daemon runs on Server1.
You need to ensure that members of a security group named Docker Administrators can administer Docker. What should you do?
A. Run theSet-Service cmdlet.
B. Modify the Security settings of Dockerd.exe.
C. Edit the Daemon.json file.
D. Modify the Security settings of Docker.exe.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon. On VM1, you have a container network that uses transparent mode. You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP. What should you do?
A. On VM1, run docker network connect.
B. On Server1, run docker network connect.
C. On VM1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter 璏acAddressSpoofing On.
D. On Server1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter ?MacAddressSpoofing On.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If the container host is virtualized, and you wish to use DHCP for IP assignment, you must enable MACAddressSpoofing.
PS C:\> Get-VMNetworkAdapter -VMName ContainerHostVM | Set-VMNetworkAdapter – MacAddressSpoofing On
The command needs to be run on the Hyper-V host.

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 and VM1 run Windows Server 2016. The settings for VM1 are configured as shown in the exhibit below.
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You need to ensure that you can use the Copy-VMFile cmdlet on Server1 to copy files from VM1. Solution: You need to enable the Data Exchange integration service for VM1. Does this meet the goal?
A. YES
B. NO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
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You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export- DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
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You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You add a computer to subnet1. The computer has an IP address of 10.10.0.129 Web1 receives a request from the new computer and sends a response. What should you do?
A. 10.10.0.129
B. 10.10.0.224
C. 131.107.0.223
D. 172.16.128.222
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to deploy several shielded virtual machines on Server1. You deploy a Host Guardian on a new server. You need to ensure that Server1 can host shielded virtual machines.
What should you do first?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
70-743 exam Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You discover that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with Server1 over the network. You need to ensure that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with each other only. The solution must prevent VM1 and VM2 from communicating with Server1.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Enable-VMSwitchExtention
B. Set-NetNeighbor
C. Set-VMSwitch
D. Remove-VMSwitchTeamMember
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The virtual switch needs to be configured as an “Private” switch.

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT). Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology. Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.

  1. Microsoft Exams 70-740, 70-741, and 70-742
  2. Time allotted for exam: 120 minutes (per exam)
  3. Number of questions: 40-60* (per exam)
  4. Question types: Active screen; Build list; Case study; Drag and drop; Hot area; Multiple choice/Best answer; Multiple choice/Single answer; Multiple choice/Multiple answer; Short answer
  5. Exam registration: Microsoft Learning or Pearson Vue
  6. Skills Measured: Each exam registration page on the Microsoft website provides a list of Skills Measured (which is a free resource) to guide your study and preparation.

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Planning and managing a client life cycle strategy (16%)
  • Plan and manage client licensing and activation
  • Plan and manage software updates
  • Plan and manage a physical hardware and virtualization strategy
Designing a standard image (17%)
  • Design an image creation strategy
  • Design a custom image
  • Define an image update strategy
Designing client configurations (17%)
  • Design standard system settings
  • Define client security standards
  • Define Windows Internet Explorer settings
Designing a Windows 7 client deployment (15%)
  • Analyze the environment and choose appropriate deployment methods
  • Design a lite-touch deployment strategy
  • Design a zero-touch deployment strategy
  • Design a user state migration strategy
Designing application packages for deployment (17%)
  • Design a delivery or deployment strategy
  • Manage application compatibility
Identifying and resolving deployment and client configuration issues (19%)
  • Identify and resolve Internet Explorer issues
  • Identify and resolve Group Policy issues
  • Identify and resolve networking issues
  • Identify and resolve authentication and authorization issues
Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-744 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-9)

QUESTION 1
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with Windows Server 2008 R2 member servers and 1,000 Windows 7 client computers.
You are designing the deployment of a custom application.
You have the following requirements:
You need to design a deployment strategy that meets the requirements.
Which deployment method should you use?
A. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
B. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007
C. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
D. software installation in Group Policy
70-686 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The RemoteApp and Desktop Connections feature offers several benefits: RemoteApp programs launch from the Start menu just like any other application. Published Remote Desktop connections are included alongside RemoteApp programs on the Start menu. Changes to the published connection (such as newly published RemoteApp programs) are automatically reflected on the user’s Start menu, without any effort on the user’s part. RemoteApp programs can be easily launched with Windows Search. Users only have to log on once, to create the connection. From that point on, updates happen with no prompt for user credentials. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections does not require domain membership for client computers. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections benefits from new features in Windows Server 2008 R2, such as Personal Desktop assignment or per-user application filtering. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections is built on standard technologies
such as XML and HTTPS, making it possible for developers to build solutions around it. It also offers APIs that allow the client software to support other types of resources, in addition to RemoteApp programs and Remote Desktop connections.

QUESTION 2
Your company’s network has client computers that run Windows 7. Multiple users share the computers in the shipping department. These computers reside in the Shipping Computers organizational unit (OU).
The company wants to deploy a new application. The application is not packaged.
You have the following requirements:
You need to plan the software deployment process to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you include in the process? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, create a collection that contains the shipping department computers, and assign the package to the collection.
B. Create a package by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the Computer Configuration container.
D. In the Group Policy Management Console, link the software installation policy to the Shipping Computers OU.
E. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, create a collection that contains the shipping department users, and assign the package to the collection.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hints:
GPO only support MSI & ZAP file type this application is not packaged = non MSI or ZaP file type

QUESTION 3
Your network has client computers that run Windows XP. All users access a custom line-of- business application. The line-of-business application is not compatible with Windows 7.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7.
You have the following requirements:
You need to manage application compatibility to meet the requirements. What should you do?
A. Install the application on a Remote Desktop Services server.
B. Install a shim for the application on each client computer.
C. Virtualize the application by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V).
D. Install the Windows Compatibility Evaluator on each client computer.
70-686 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows XP Professional x64.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
The company uses an application that is incompatible with Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
You have the following requirements:
You need to design a solution that meets the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Install the application on all client computers by using Group Policy, and then use the Compatibility tab.
B. Install the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client on each client computer, and run the application in offline mode.
C. Install the Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) package on each client computer.
D. Install the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client on each client computer, and stream the application by using App-V.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Your companys network has client computers that run Windows 7. Multiple users share the computers in the shipping department. These computers reside in the Shipping Computers organizational unit (OU). The network design is shown in the following diagram.
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You are planning to deploy an application. The application is packaged as a Microsoft Windows Installer package (MSI).
You need to deploy the application only to computers in the shipping department. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link the software installation policy to the Workstations OU.
B. Link the software installation policy to the Shipping Computers OU.
C. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the User Configuration container.
D. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the Computer Configuration container.
70-686 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To specify how and when computers are updated through Group Policy In Group Policy Object Editor, expand Computer Configuration, expand Administrative Templates, expand Windows Components, and then click Windows Update. In the
details pane of Group Policy Object Editor, configure the appropriate policies. See the following table for examples of the policies you might want to set.. refer to

QUESTION 6
Your company has two Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains, Domain1 and Domain2. A two-way trust relationship exists between the domains. Users in both domains can log on to client computers in only their own domains. System logs on the domain controllers display the error message Clock skew too great when users in Domain1 attempt to log on to client computers in Domain2. You need to ensure that users can log on to client computers in both domains. What should you do?
A. Decrease the Maximum tolerance for computer clock synchronization setting in the default Domain Group Policy object ( GPO ).
B. Configure the primary domain controller (PDC) emulatorin each domain to synchronize its clock with the same external time source.
C. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /setsntp on all client computers.
D. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /querysntp on all client computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain named contoso.com. The design of the organizational units (OUs) and Group Policy objects (GPOs) is shown in the following diagram.
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Multiple computer configuration settings and user configuration settings are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO. A security audit indicates that user configuration settings that are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO are not applied when users log on to client computers that are in the Kiosk Computers OU. You need to ensure that the user configuration settings are correctly applied. What should you do?
A. Enable loopback processing in Merge mode on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
B. Disable the user configuration settings on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
C. Enable loopback processing in Replace mode on the Kiosk Computers GPO.
D. Disable the user configuration settings on the New York Users GPO.
70-686 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Refer to Planning and managing windows 7 desktop deployments and environment Pg 10-92

QUESTION 8
You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the
Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed. If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options. Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line. Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays. Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data. Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed. However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

QUESTION 9
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers. All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU). Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers. You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications. What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
70-686 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document. When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the Trusted Sites and Local
Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc784600(v=ws.10).aspx hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established by using a Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

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Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
  • Configure disk and file encryption
  • Implement malware protection
  • Protect credentials
  • Create security baselines
Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
  • Implement a Guarded Fabric solution
  • Implement Shielded and encryption-supported VMs
Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
  • Configure Windows Firewall
  • Implement a Software Defined Datacenter Firewall
  • Secure network traffic
Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
  • Implement Just-In-Time (JIT) Administration
  • Implement Just-Enough-Administration (JEA)
  • Implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and User Rights Assignments
  • Implement Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS)
Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
  • Configure advanced audit policies
  • Install and configure Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA)
  • Determine threat detection solutions using Operations Management Suite (OMS)
Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)
  • Secure application development and server workload infrastructure
  • Implement a secure file services infrastructure and Dynamic Access Control (DAC)

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Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-744 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-13)
QUESTION 1
Your network contains two single-domain Active Directory forests named contoso.com and contosoadmin.com. Contosoadmin.com contains all of the user accounts used to manage the servers in contoso.com. You need to recommend a workstation solution that provides the highest level of protection from vulnerabilities and attacks. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Provide a Privileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each user account in both forests. Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain.
B. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each user in the contoso.com forest Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain.
C. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each administrator. Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain.
D. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each administrator. Join each PAW to the contosoadmin.com domain.
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that use the same or simitar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a shared folder named Share1. You need to ensure that all access to Share1 uses SMB Encryption. Which tool should you use?
A. File Explorer
B. Shared Folders
C. Server Manager
D. Disk Management
E. Storage Explorer
F. Computer Management
G. System Configuration
H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)>
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Windows Firewall rules can be configured using PowerShell. The “Set-NetFirewallProfile” cmdlet configures settings that apply to the per-profile configurations of the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. What is the default setting for the AllowInboundRules parameter when managing a GPO?
A. FALSE
B. NotConfigured
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1.
End of repeated scenario
You need to ensure that the marketing department computers validate DNS responses from adatum.com. Which setting should you configure in the Computer Configuration node of GP1?
A. TCPIP Settings from Administrative Templates
B. Connection Security Rule from Windows Settings
C. DNS Client from Administrative Templates
D. Name Resolution Policy from Windows Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The New-CIPolicy cmdlet creates a Code Integrity policy as an .xml file. If you do NOT supply either driver files or rules what will happen?
A. The cmdlet performs a system scan
B. An exception/warning is shown because either one is required
C. Nothing
D. The cmdlet searches the Code Integrity Audit log for drivers
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoio.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Administration that contains the computer account of Server1. You import the Active Directory module to Served1. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 You link GPO1 to the Administration OU. You need to log an event each time an Active Directory cmdlet is executed succesfully from Served. What should you do?
A. From Advanced Audit Policy in GPO1 configure auditing for directory service changes.
B. Run the (Get-Module ActiveDirectory).LogPipelineExecutionDetails – $false command.
C. Run the (Get-Module ArtivcDirectory).LogPipelineExecutionDetails = $true command.
D. From Advanced Audit Policy in GPO1 configure auditing for other privilege use events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 client computers that run Windows 10. A security audit reveals that the network recently experienced a Pass-the-Hash attack. The attack was initiated from a client computer and accessed Active Directory objects restricted to the members of the Domain Admins group. You need to minimize the impact of another successful Pass-the-Hash attack on the domain. What should you recommend?
A. Instruct all users to sign in to a client computer by using a Microsoft account.
B. Move the computer accounts of all the client computers to a new organizational unit (OU). Remove the permissions to the new OU from the Domain Admins group.
C. Instruct all administrators to use a local Administrators account when they sign in to a client computer.
D. Move the computer accounts of the domain controllers to a new organizational unit (OU). Remove the permissions to the new OU from the Domain Admins group.
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA). You create a user named User1. You need to configure the user account of User1 as a Honeytoken account. Which information must you use to configure the Honeytoken account?
A. the SAM account name of User1
B. the Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) of User1
C. the SID of User1
D. the UPN of User1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Yout network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network. The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally. Computer1 runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080. You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network.
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Serve1, that runs Windows Server 2016. A technician is testing the deployment of Credential Guard on Server1. You need to verify whether Credential Guard is enabled on Server1. What should you do?
A. From a command prompt fun the credwiz.exe command.
B. From Task Manager, review the processes listed on the Details tab.
C. From Server Manager, click Local Server, and review the properties of Server!
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-WsManCredSSP cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You create a Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) workspace. You need to connect several computers directly to the workspace. Which two pieces of information do you require? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. the ID of the workspace
B. the name of the workspace
C. the URL of the workspace
D. the key of the workspace
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Read the following statement carefully and answer YES or NO. You create a rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” that allows everyone in the organization to run Windows but does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor.
The effect of this rule would prevent users such as help desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks. To resolve this problem, you create a second rule that applies to the Helpdesk user group: “Allow Helpdesk to run Registry Editor.” However, if you created a deny rule that did not allow any users to run Registry Editor, would the deny rule override the second rule that allows the Helpdesk user group to run Registry Editor?
A. NO
B. YES
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The “Network Security: Restrict NTLM: NTLM authentication in this domain” policy setting allows you to deny or allow NTLM authentication within a domain from this domain controller. Which value would you choose so that the domain controller will deny all NTLM authentication logon attempts using accounts from this domain to all servers in the domain.
The NTLM authentication attempts will be blocked and will return an NTLM blocked error unless the server name is on the exception list in the Network security: Restrict NTLM: Add server exceptions in this domain policy setting.
A. Deny for domain accounts
B. Deny for domain accounts to domain servers
C. Deny all
D. Deny for domain servers
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: B

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  • Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions (70-532)
  • Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions (70-533)
  • Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions (70-534)
  • Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions (70-473)
  • Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions (70-475)
  • Securing Windows Server 2016 (70-744)
  • Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure (70-413)
  • Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure (70-414)
  • Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud (70-246)
  • Configuring and Deploying a Private Cloud (70-247)

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QUESTION 37
In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited
B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting
C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows supports two types of ACLs: discretionary access control lists (DACLs) and system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditing is enabled. In addition to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and DACL are all statically held as attributes of each object. Windows also offers the functionality to inherit permissions, which allows the child objects existing within a parent object to automatically inherit the ACLs of the parent object. ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identifiers (SIDs). These are automatically generated by a Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though a user may identify his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representation of the true SID, which is used by the underlying operating system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account’s SID rather than the account’s username or group name while granting access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer GUI but can also be configured with CLI commands or other third- party tools.
QUESTION 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?
A. Near zero RPO
B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitation
D. Faster response time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Synchronous Replication
In synchronous remote replication, writes must be committed to the source and remote replica (or target), prior to acknowledging “write complete” to the host. Additional writes on the source cannot occur until each preceding write has been completed and acknowledged. This ensures that data is identical on the source and replica at all times. Further, writes are transmitted to the remote site exactly in the order in which they are received at the source. Therefore, write ordering is maintained. If a source-site failure occurs, synchronous remote replication provides zero or near-zero recovery-point objective (RPO).
QUESTION 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Intra-array Storage Tiering

The process of storage tiering within a storage array is called intra-array storage tiering. It enables the efficient use of SSD, FC, and SATA drives within an array and provides performance and cost optimization. The goal is to keep the SSDs busy by storing the most frequently accessed data on them, while moving out the less frequently accessed data to the SATA drives. Data movements executed between tiers can be performed at the LUN level or at the sub-LUN level. The performance can be further improved by implementing tiered cache. Traditionally, storage tiering is operated at the LUN level that moves an entire LUN from one tier of storage to another. This movement includes both active and inactive data in that LUN. This method does not give effective cost and performance benefits. Today, storage tiering can be implemented at the sub-LUN level. In sub-LUN level tiering, a LUN is broken down into smaller segments and tiered at that level. Movement of data with much finer granularity, for example 8 MB, greatly enhances the value proposition of automated storage tiering. Tiering at the sub-LUN level effectively moves active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
QUESTION 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
A. Persistent Port Disable
B. Port Binding
C. Port Lockdown
D. Persistent Switch Disable
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Securing FC Switch Ports
Apart from zoning and LUN masking, additional security mechanisms, such as port binding, port lockdown, port lockout, and persistent port disable, can be implemented on switch ports. Port binding: Limits the devices that can attach to a particular switch port and allows only the corresponding switch port to connect to a node for fabric access. Port binding mitigates but does not eliminate WWPN spoofing. Port lockdown and port lockout: Restrict a switch port’s type of initialization. Typical variants of port lockout ensure that the switch port cannot function as an E-Port and cannot be used to create an ISL, such as a rogue switch. Some variants ensure that the port role is restricted to only F- Port, E-Port, or a combination of these. Persistent port disable: Prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot.
QUESTION 42
What does a block map contain in a file system snapshot?
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot
B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the first time
C. Blocks that have changed since the creation of the snapshot
D. Blocks that have been modified in either the source or the target
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

File system (FS) snapshot is a pointer-based replica that requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS. It uses the Copy on First Write (CoFW) principle to create snapshots. When a snapshot is created, a bitmap and blockmap are created in the metadata of the Snap FS. The bitmap is used to keep track of blocks that are changed on the production FS after the snap creation. The blockmap is used to indicate the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS . Immediately after the creation of the FS Snapshot, all reads from the snapshot are actually served by reading the production FS. In a CoFW mechanism, if a write I/O is issued to the production FS for the first time after the creation of a snapshot, the I/O is held and the original data of production FS corresponding to that location is moved to the Snap FS. Then, the write is allowed to the production FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Subsequent writes to the same location will not initiate the CoFW activity. To read from the Snap FS, the bitmap is consulted. If the bit is 0, then the read is directed to the production FS. If the bit is 1, then the block address is obtained from the blockmap and the data is read from that address on the snap FS. Read requests from the production FS work as normal.
QUESTION 43
What describes a full mesh topology?
A. All switches are directly connected to each other
B. Consists of core and edge switch tiers
C. Requires four switches
D. Requires two ISL hops for host to storage traffic
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Mesh Topology

A mesh topology may be one of the two types: full mesh or partial mesh. In a full mesh, every switch is connected to every other switch in the topology . A full mesh topology may be appropriate when the number of switches involved is small. A typical deployment would involve up to four switches or directors, with each of them servicing highly localized host-tostorage traffic. In a full mesh topology, a maximum of one ISL or hop is required for host-tostorage traffic. However, with the increase in the number of switches, the number of switch ports used for ISL also increases. This reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity. In a partial mesh topology, several hops or ISLs may be required for the traffic to reach its destination. Partial mesh offers more scalability than full mesh topology. However, without proper placement of host and storage devices, traffic management in a partial mesh fabric might be complicated and ISLs could become overloaded due to excessive traffic aggregation.
QUESTION 44
What is a characteristic of pointer-based virtual replication?
A. Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session
B. Replica device is at least as large as the source device
C. Replica is available only after detachment from the source
D. Source does not need to be healthy for the restore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pointer-based Virtual Replication
In pointer-based virtual replication, at the time of the replication session activation, the target contains pointers to the location of the data on the source. The target does not contain data at any time. Therefore, the target is known as a virtual replica. Similar to pointer-based full-volume replication, the target is immediately accessible after the replication session activation. This replication method uses CoFW technology and typically recommended when the changes to the source are less than 30%.
QUESTION 45
When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does the backup client run?
A. Proxy server
B. Hypervisor
C. Virtual machine
D. Backup device
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Image-based Backup
Image-based backup operates at the hypervisor level and essentially takes a snapshot of the VM. It creates a copy of the guest OS and all the data associated with it (snapshot of VM disk files), including the VM state and application configurations. The backup is saved as a single file called an “image” and this image is mounted on the proxy server (acts as a backup client). The backup software then backs up these image files normally. This effectively offloads the backup processing from the hypervisor and transfers the load on the proxy server, thereby reducing the impact to VMs running on the hypervisor. Image-based backup enables quick restoration of a VM.
QUESTION 46
Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a single storage platform?
A. Unified
B. Scale-out
C. Gateway
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Unified NAS
The unified NAS consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based data access within a unified storage platform and provides a unified management interface for managing both the environments. Unified NAS performs file serving and storing of file data, along with providing access to block- level data. It supports both CIFS and NFS protocols for file access and iSCSI and FC protocols for block level access. Due to consolidation of NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platform, unified NAS reduces an organization’s infrastructure and management costs. A unified NAS contains one or more NAS heads and storage in a single system. NAS heads are connected

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QUESTION 60
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has two physical disks installed. The C: drive hosts the boot partition, while the D: drive is not being used. Both disks are online. You have received instructions to create a virtual machine on L2P-SR07. Subsequent to creating the virtual machine, you
have to connect the D: drive to the virtual machine. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connecting a physical disk to a virtual machine?
A. The physical disk should not be online.
B. The physical disk should be uninstalled and re-installed.
C. The physical disk should be configured as a striped disk.
D. The physical disk should be configured as a mirrored disk.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File Server server role installed. On Server1, you create a share named Documents. You need to ensure that users can recover files that they accidently delete from Documents. What should you do?
A. Enable shadow copies by using Computer Management.
B. Modify the Startup type of the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) by using the Services console.
C. Create a recovery partition by using Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
D. Create a storage pool that contains a two-way mirrored volume by using Server Manager.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to obtain an IPv4 address by using DHCP. You need to configure the IPv4 settings of the network connection on Server1 as follows:
– IP address: 10.1.1.1
– Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
– Default gateway: 10.1.1.254
What should you run?
A. netsh.exe
B. netcfg.exe
C. msconfig.exe
D. ipconfig.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three member servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
70-410 dumps

All client computers run Windows 8. All client computers receive updates from Server2. On Servers, you add a shared printer named Printer1. Printer1 uses a Type 4 driver that is not included in the Windows 8 installation media. You need to ensure that when users connect to the printer for the first time, the printer driver is installed automatically on their client computer. What should you do?
A. From the Windows Deployment Services console on Server1, add the driver package for Printer1.
B. From the Update Services console on Server2, import and approve updates.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server3, run the Add-PrinterDriver cmdlet.
D. From the Print Management console on Server3, add additional drivers for Printer1.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 computer accounts in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A user account named User1 is in an OU named OU2. You are configuring a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right to all of the computer
accounts in OU1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link GPO1 to OU1.
B. Link GPO1 to OU2.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.

D. From User Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
E. From Computer Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes what happens when facility backup fast reroute is enabled for a LSP? Choose three answers.
A. Each PLR will signal a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop node or link.
B. When a failure occurs, the PLR will push an additional label onto the label stack and start forwarding traffic onto its bypass tunnel.
C. The ingress router will include a RRO object in the path message to indicate the routers that should be PLRs and MPs along the protected path.
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish bypass tunnels.
E. When the bypass tunnel is in use, the MP will include the RRO object in its PathErr message, with the
local protection in use flag set to notify the ingress router that it is using the bypass tunnel.
70-410 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 67
True or False? MPLS may use an existing data link layer header field to identify a label, instead of using a specific MPLS header
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Which one of the following statements regarding the detour object transported in the detour path message is true?
A. The PLR sends it downstream with the RRO.
B. The PLR sends it downstream with the ERO.
C. It associates all detours with the source PLR.
D. The MP sends it upstream with the RESV message.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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Question: 14
The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However,
the JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees.
What danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
70-740 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of how past discriminatory practices can perpetuate themselves in the
organization, by using the current pool of employees to bring new applicants. Past discriminatory
practices that created the current pool of employees can cause the current pool to refer similar
candidates to the company.
Answer option D is incorrect. While this choice is tempting the question doesn’t reveal what the
discriminatory practices were in the past. The discriminatory practices could have been race, sex,
religion, or a host of other discrimination.
Answer option A is incorrect. The question doesn’t reveal if the past practices were intentional or
not, and the current situation could and could not be unintentional. The best answer, however, is
that this scenario perpetuates past discrimination practices.
Answer option C is incorrect. An adverse impact is the overall effect of a disparate action. While this
answer is tempting, it’s not the best choice for the question.
Question: 15
You are a HR Professional for your organization and you’re preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you’ll use and encourage in the
series of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for
the graphic designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example
of what type of validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
70-740 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The selection criterion for the graphic designer to use the software program and create a brochure is
indicative of the type of work the graphic designer should be able to do in the job. This is an example
of content validity for the applicant.
Answer option C is incorrect. Criterion-related validity is an example where performance scores
achieved by current employees are based on the criterion used for the selection. For example,
current employees can perform better because they can design artwork in particular software
programs, so applicants must be able to use the particular software program to qualify for the
position.
Answer option A is incorrect. Construct-related validity measures certain psychological tests to
determine whether the applicant possesses the desired characteristics to operate successfully in the
position.
Answer option B is incorrect. Predictive-validity is a confirmation of characteristics the candidate is
tested for during the interview process, hold true in the actual performance of the candidate once
they’ve been hired.
Question: 16
The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against
employees on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law
affects organizations having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
70-740 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
This law addresses all organizations that have 15 or more employees.
Answer option A is incorrect. Organizations with fewer than 15 employees are exempted from this
law.
Answer option B is incorrect. The law requires organizations with 15 or more employees to conform
to the regulation.
Answer option D is incorrect. This law applies to all organizations with 15 or more employees, not
just the federal government.

Question: 17
The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering
$80,000 for the starting salary they’ll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this
scenario an example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
70-740 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
When an organization wants to pay more than the market norm, they are considered to be leading
the market.
Answer option A is incorrect. Lagging the market means an organization is paying less than the
market norms.
Answer option C is incorrect. Matching the market means the company is paying the standard
market rate.
Answer option D is incorrect. Beating the market isn’t an appropriate terminology for this scenario.
Question: 18
You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the
United States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
70-740 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
The EEO-1 Report, known as the Employer Information Report, must be submitted to the
Department of Labor’s Office by September 30 of each year for employers with 100 or more
employees.
Answer option C is incorrect. January 1 is not a valid answer.
Answer option A is incorrect. April 15 is the tax filing deadline.
Answer option B is incorrect. All organizations with 100 or more employees must file the EEO-1
report by September 30, not the anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees.

Question: 19
As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee’s rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
70-740 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The OSHA poster with the employee’s rights is OSHA poster 3165.
Answer options D, C, and B are incorrect. The OSHA poster with the employee’s rights is OSHA
poster 3165.
Question: 20
Question: Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you’re to keep
abreast of market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What
component of the HR Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C
Explanation:
The HR Professional in this role of the catalyst is involved in the HR practices, trends, business needs,
and understands the company’s culture and employee attitudes. Answer option D is incorrect. The
consultation role helps to define the overall organizational strategy.
Answer option B is incorrect. The policies and procedures role establishes and controls the HR
processes, employee programs, and ensures fair treatment for employees.
Answer option A is incorrect. The programs and processes role oversees programs to attract and
motivate employees, and promotes employee satisfaction and performance.

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Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 48

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3.LIMITATION OF LIABILITY
IN NO EVENT SHALL RSA, THE SECURITY DIVISION OF EMC BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT,
CONSEQUENTIAL, INCIDENTAL, OR SPECIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO
LOSS OF BUSINESS PROFITS) ARISING FROM OR RELATED TO YOUR CERTIFICATION,
FAILURE TO ACHIEVE CERTIFICATION, OR USE OF OR INABILITY TO USE THE RSA
CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL LOGO OR DESIGNATIONS, OR ARISING FROM OR
RELATED TO THE TERMINATION OF YOUR CERTIFICATION, EVEN IF RSA, THE SECURITY
DIVISION OF EMC HAS BEEN ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGES. BECAUSE
SOME STATES DO NOT ALLOW THE EXCLUSION OR LIMITATION OF LIABILITY FOR
CONSEQUENTIAL OR INCIDENTAL DAMAGES, THE ABOVE LIMITATION MAY NOT APPLY TO
YOU.

4.INDEMNIFICATION
You agree to indemnify and hold RSA, The Security Division of EMC harmless against any loss,
liability, damage, cost or expense (including reasonable legal fees) arising out of:
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Your use of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and/or the RSA Certified Security

Professional designation(s) in a manner which is in any way inconsistent with the terms of the RSA
Certified Security Professional Agreement;
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By reason of Your performance or non-performance as a RSA Certified Security Professional; or
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RSA Security’s termination of the RSA Certified Security Professional 70-741 exam Agreement.
In the event RSA, The Security Division of EMC seeks indemnification from You under this Section,
RSA will immediately notify You in writing of any claim or proceeding brought against it for which it
seeks indemnification. In no event may You enter into any third-party agreements that would, in any
manner whatsoever, affect the rights of, or bind, RSA, The Security Division of EMC in any manner,
without the prior written consent of RSA, The Security Division of EMC.

5. REPRESENTATIONS
All certified security professionals who are certified under the RSA Certified Security Professional
Program recognize that such certification is a privilege that must be both earned and maintained. In
support of this, You represent that all business You conduct in Your capacity as an RSA Certified
Security Professional, and all services You provide concerning RSA’s products, shall be performed in
a manner that:
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Does not, in any way, harm RSA’s reputation;
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Avoids deceptive, misleading, or unethical practices; width
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Avoids making any representations, warranties, or guarantees to customers on behalf of RSA 70-741 dumps, The
Security Division of EMC for RSA’s products or otherwise;
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Complies with all applicable U.S. export regulations and other applicable governmental laws and
regulations; and
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Complies with copyright and other intellectual property and proprietary rights protections for RSA’s
products.
6. NON-DISCLOSURE AGREEMENT
You expressly undertake to retain, in confidence, all information and know-how transmitted to You by
RSA, The Security Division of EMC that RSA has identified as being proprietary and/or confidential or
that, by the nature of the circumstances surrounding its disclosure, ought in good faith to be treated as
proprietary and/or confidential, and You will make no use of such information and know-how except
under the terms and during the existence of the Non-Disclosure Agreement.
You expressly acknowledge that the RSA Certified Security Professional certification test questions
and materials are subject to these confidentiality and non-disclosure obligations, and may not be
disclosed to or discussed with others, or posted 70-741 pdf or published in any forum or through any medium.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, You shall have no obligation to maintain the confidentiality of
information that:
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Has become generally available to the public through no wrongful act on Your part;
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Has been independently developed; or
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Is known to be free of restrictions.
Further, You may disclose confidential information as required by governmental or judicial order,
provided You give RSA prompt written notice prior to such disclosure, and comply with any protective
order (or equivalent) imposed on such disclosure.
Your obligation under this Section shall survive the expiration or termination of the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement and continue after any termination of said Agreement.
7. TERMINATION
Termination By Either Party:
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Either party may terminate the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement at any time, with or
without cause.
Immediate Termination By RSA:
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Without prejudice to any rights RSA, The Security Division of EMC may have under the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement or in law, equity, or otherwise, and in addition to its rights outlined in
the previous paragraph, RSA, The Security Division of EMC 70-741 vce may terminate the RSA Certified Security
Professional Agreement immediately, including termination of any certifications and RSA Certified
Security Professional designations to which the Agreement relates, and termination of Your use of the
corresponding RSA Certified Security Professional Logo, upon the occurrence of any one of the
following events (the “Defaults”):
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You fail to comply with the applicable continuing certification requirements for such certification; width
You otherwise fail to comply with any of the terms of the RSA Certified Security Professional
Agreement, including, without limitation, the terms governing the use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional designations and Logo;
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You engage in misappropriation or unauthorized disclosure of any trade secret or confidential
information of RSA (including, but not limited to, any RSA Certified Security Professional certification
test materials or other RSA materials with respect to which You are under non-disclosure 70-741 exam obligation),
or pirate any RSA’s product, or otherwise infringe any other intellectual property right of RSA, or
engage in any other activities prohibited by law; or
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A government agency or court finds that services You provided concerning RSA’s products, to which
Your certification relates, are defective in any way.
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In the event any Default occurs, RSA, The Security Division of EMC will provide You with written
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immediately cease all use of any RSA Certified Security Professional designation and Logo to which
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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION 8
Quality control circles are now used all over the world. The circles typically consist of a group of five to ten employees who meet regularly. The primary goal of
these circles is to:
A. Improve the quality of leadership in the organization.
B. Tap the creative problem-solving potential of every employee.
C. Improve communications between employees and managers by providing a formal communication channel
D. Allow for the emergence of team leaders who can be targeted for further leadership development.
Correct Answer: B
70-742 exam Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality control circles are used to obtain voluntary input from employees to promote problem solving. Potential benefits include lower costs, better employer
employee relations, and greater employee commitment.
QUESTION 9
A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and
reliability of branch store financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a high- performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches).
This process requires, among other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance measurement is the amount of
bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.
QUESTION 10
The management and employees of a large household goods moving company believe that it if became nationally known as adhering to total quality management
and continuous improvement, one result would be an increase in the company’s profits and market share. What should the company focus onto achieve quality
more economically?
A. Appraisal costs.
B. Prevention costs.

C. Internal failure costs.
D. External failure costs.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Prevention is ordinarily less costly than the combined costs of appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
QUESTION 11
The cost of scrap, rework, and tooling changes in a product quality cost system is categorized as a (n):
A. Training cost.
B. External failure cost.
C. Internal failure cost.
D. Prevention cost.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal failure costs are incurred when detection of defective products occurs before shipment. Examples of internal failure costs are scrap, rework, tooling
changes, and downtime.
QUESTION 12
The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective output during and after the production process. Internal failure
costs are associated with defective output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output discovered after it has reached
the customer.
QUESTION 13
Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.
QUESTION 14
Listed below are costs of quality that a manufacturing company has incurred throughout its operations.
The U.S. dollar amount of the costs of quality classified as prevention costs for the manufacturing firm would be:
A. US$643,000
B. US$701,000
C. US$736,000
D. US$768,000
70-742 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Examples are the costs of employee training, review of equipment design, preventive maintenance, and
evaluation of suppliers. Accordingly, the prevention costs equal US $701,000 ($275,000 design reviews + $180,000 process engineering + $90,000 scheduled
maintenance + $156,000 training).
QUESTION 15
The costs of quality that are incurred in detecting units of product that do not conform to product specifications are referred to as:
A. Prevention costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Rework costs.
D. Failure costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Appraisal activities include inspection and testing. Appraisal costs (such as test equipment maintenance and destructive testing) are incurred to detect products
not conforming to specifications.
QUESTION 16
Listed below are selected line items from the cost-of-quality report for Company B for last month Category:
What is Company B’s total prevention and appraisal cost for last month?
A. US$786
B. US$1,154
C. US$1,940
D. US$2,665
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (C) is correct. Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects from occurring. An example is equipment maintenance. Appraisal costs are incurred to
detect defective output during and after the production process. An example is product testing. Thus, total prevention and appraisal cost for the month equals US
$1,940 (US$1,154 + US $786).

QUESTION 17
All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
QUESTION 18
In Year 2, a manufacturing company instituted a total quality management (TQM) program producing the following report:
On the basis of this report, which one of the following statements is most likely true?
A. An increase in prevention and appraisal costs resulted in a higher quality product and therefore resulted in a decrease in failure costs.
B. An increase in inspection costs was solely responsible for the decrease in quality costs.
C. Quality costs, such as scrap and rework, decreased by 48%.
D. Quality costs, such as returns and repairs under warranty, decreased by 40%.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Prevention and appraisal costs increased substantially, but internal and external failure costs decreased. Thus, the soundest conclusion is
that the increase in prevention and appraisal costs resulted in a higher-quality product.
QUESTION 19
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining a given level of quality. One example of a quality cost index, which uses a
direct labor base, is computed as:

Based upon these cost data, the quality cost index:
A. Decreased four points from May to June.
B. Was unchanged from May to June.
C. Increased 10 points from May to June.
D. Decreased 10 points from May to June.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The index for May was 40 [(US $4,000 + $6,000 + $12,000 + $14,000) + $90,000], and the index for June was 36 [(US $5,000 + $5,000 + $15,000 + $11.000) +
$100,000].
Answer:
QUESTION 20
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining or improving the level of quality. Such indices are computed by dividing the
total cost of quality over a given period by some measure of activity during that period (for example, sales dollars). The following cost data are available for a

company for the month of March. The company’s quality cost index is calculated using total cost of quality divided by sales dollars.
The quality cost index for March is:
A. 7.5
B. 6.5
C. 22.0
D. 5.9
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total cost of quality equals the sum of prevention costs (quality planning), appraisal costs (inspection and testing), internal failure costs (scrap and rework),
and external failure costs (customer complaints and returns), or US $30,000 ($2,800 + $6,400 + $16,800 + $4,000). Thus, the quality cost index for March is 7.5
[(US $30,000 – US $400,000) x 100].
QUESTION 21
Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the differences between these organizations have certain implications for
quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes maybe reworked or replaced to a customer’s satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of customers.

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Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 113

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1.Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
70-487 exam Answer:C
2.You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, “daily”) > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, “daily”) > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, “daily”) > 5000 THEN crCondition = “Enabled”
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, “daily”) > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = “Enabled”
Answer:A
3.Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
70-487 dumps Answer:C D
4.In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E
5.You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
70-487 pdf Answer:D
6.You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D
7.Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
70-487 vce Answer:B C
8.What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size B.Database
Timeout C.Maximum LOV
Size D.Maximum Rowset
Records
Answer:A C
9.Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
70-487 exam Answer:A C
10.Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D
11.You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
70-487 dumps Answer:B
12.You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B
13.When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.

70-487 pdf Answer:D
14.Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A
15.You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
70-487 vce Answer:B
16.Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D
17.You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager’s concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
70-487 exam Answer:C
18.You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
70-463 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements address the adequate
electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Between the late 60’s and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects and engineers better
design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following should be used as a guideline for estimating space requirements of optical fiber and
coaxial cable cross-connections in a TR?
A. 3 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
B. 2 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
C. 4 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
D. 1 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit, cable, or component
offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.

Correct Answer: Impedance
QUESTION 7
The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the presence of an
electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False
70-463 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation
of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or
ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
70-463 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
A. True
B. False
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
FOTP is an acronym for which of the following?
A. Fiber Optic Test Procedure.
B. Fiber Outside Termination Point.
C. Frequent Optical Transmission Problems.
D. Fiber Optic Transition Point.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one
minute.
A. False
B. True
70-463 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address
coded in the network interface card?
A. MAC
B. TCP
C. IP
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
A. 1977
B. 1984
C. 1967
D. 1940
70-463 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
In the ceiling zones method of ceiling distribution, divide the usable floor area into zones of how many
square feet?
A. 2000 to 2500 square feet.
B. 2500 to 3000 square feet.
C. 365 to 900 square feet.
D. 1000 to 2000 square feet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
In a computer or control room where the plenum is used for heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning, the
finished floor height should be a minimum of how many inches?
A. 8 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 2 inches.
D. 6 inches.
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following would be the medium duty concentrated load capacity of an access floor in an
equipment room?
A. 100 lbs/square ft.
B. 50 lbs/square ft.
C. 1000 lbs/square ft.
D. 2000 lbs/square ft.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Freestanding and cornerlock access floors consist of panels that are supported solely by pedestals.
A. False
B. True
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
An offset in a conduit run should be considered the equivalent of a 90 degree bend.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
An is responsible for the detailed design of new systems and/or the integration of a design into an existing
system.
A. True
B. False
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What is the typical slab thickness requirement for a two level underfloor duct system where feeder and
distribution ducts intersect?
A. 4 inch.
B. 5 inch.
C. 6 inch.
D. 7 inch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
When designing an underfloor duct system, which of the following would be the cross-sectional area of the
duct serving each 100 square feet of floor space with 3 cables to each of the work areas.
A. 3 square inches.
B. 4 square inches.
C. 1 square inches.
D. 5 square inches.
70-463 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
A third bend is acceptable in a pull section shorter than 33 ft. in length?
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
In an underfloor duct system, pre-set inserts should be leveled to 1/8 inch below the finished pour.
A. False
B. True
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An underfloor preset insert must be used in a post-tensioned pour.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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