Share the latest CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions online

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Practice CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions online

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certifications
Pass4itsure220CCNP Enterprise
Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions 1

A wireless engineer has integrated the wireless network with a RADIUS server. Although the configuration on the RADIUS is correct, users are reporting that they are unable to connect. During troubleshooting, the engineer notices that the authentication requests are being dropped. Which action will resolve the issue?

A. Provide a valid client username that has been configured on the RADIUS server.

B. Authenticate the client using the same EAP type that has been set up on the RADIUS server.

C. Allow connectivity from the wireless controller to the IP of the RADIUS server.

D. Configure the shared-secret keys on the controller and the RADIUS server.

Correct Answer: B

https://community.cisco.com/t5/network-access-control/cisco-acs-11036-the-message-authenticator-radius-attribute-is/td-p/2054255

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions 2

An engineer needs to manage non-802.11 interference. What is observed in the output on PI?

A. Several light interferers are collectively impacting connectivity at this site.

B. The three Individual clusters have shown Indicated poor AP placement.

C. At least one strong interferer is impacting connectivity at this site.

D. RF at this site is unable to provide adequate wireless performance.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

A multitenant building contains known wireless networks in most of the suites. Rogues must be classified in the WLC. How are the competing wireless APs classified?

A. ad-hoc

B. friendly

C. malicious

D. unclassified

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions 4

An engineer must connect a forklift via a WGB to a wireless network and must authenticate the WGB certificate against the RADIUS server. Which three steps are required for this configuration? (Choose three.)

A. Configure the certificate, WLAN, and radio interface on WGB.

B. Configure the certificate on the WLC.

C. Configure WLAN to authenticate using ISE.

D. Configure the access point with the root certificate from ISE.

E. Configure WGB as a network device in ISE.

F. Configure a policy on ISE to allow devices to connect that validate the certificate.

Correct Answer: ACF

A. Configure the certificate, WLAN, and radio interface on WGB. –> That\’s true

B. Configure the certificate on the WLC. –> Nope, the WLC is the authenticator, it is neither authenticated nor needs to authenticate anything

C. Configure WLAN to authenticate using ISE. –> True, on the controller the SSID to which the WGB will connect must be configured, and broadcasted by the LAP

D. Configure the access point with the root certificate from ISE. –> If they are talking about the WGB access point, then that\’s true, the root certificate that signed the ISE certificate needs to be installed in the WGB AP

E. Configure WGB as a network device in ISE. –> That\’s surely wrong. The WGB is not the authenticator in the dot1x process. It is the client. The controller is the authenticator.

F. Configure a policy on ISE to allow devices to connect that validate the certificate. –> As I understand it, in some ways, that\’s true. We need to create an authentication/authorization policy on ISE so that the WGB AP will be authenticated by ISE based on its certificate.

Question 5:

A wireless engineer must configure access control on a WLC using a TACAS+ server for a company that is implementing centralized authentication on network devices. Which role must be configured under the shell profile on the TACAS+ server for a user with read-only permissions?

A. MANAGEMENT

B. MONITOR

C. ADMIN

D. READ

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

An engineer has many different WLANs on a WLC but does not want to broadcast them to every AP in the building. Which group must be configured on the WLC to allow different WLANs on the different APs without creating new interfaces?

A. ACL

B. interface group

C. mobility group

D. AP group

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

A wireless administrator must assess the different client types connected to Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller without using any external servers. Which configuration must be added to the controller to achieve this assessment?

A. native profile

B. MAC classification

C. local profile

D. device classification

Correct Answer: D

Source: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/catalyst-9800-series-wireless-controllers/215661-in-depth-look-into-client-profiling-on-9.html and logging into my own 9800.

Question 8:

Which component must be integrated with Cisco DNA Center to display the location of a client that is experiencing connectivity issues?

A. Cisco Hyperlocation Module

B. Wireless Intrusion Prevention System

C. Cisco Connected Mobile Experiences

D. Cisco Mobility Services Engine

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

An engineer is ensuring that, on the IEEE 802.1X wireless network, clients authenticate using a central repository and local credentials on the Cisco WLC. Which two configuration elements must be completed on the WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. TACACS+

B. MAC authentication

C. local EAP enabled

D. web authentication

E. LDAP server

Correct Answer: CE

Question 10:

CMX Facebook Wi-Fi allows access to the network before authentication. Which two elements are available? (Choose two.)

A. Allow HTTP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic.

B. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTPS only.

C. Allow HTTPs traffic only before authentication and block all other traffic.

D. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTP only.

E. Allow SNMP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8- 0/CMX_Connect_Engage_Visitor_Connect/Guide/Cisco_CMX_Connect_Engage_Config_Guide_VC/CMX_Facebook_Wi-Fi.html

Question 11:

An engineer must enable LSS for the Apple TV mDNS service only when ORIGIN is set to Wired. Which action meets this requirement?

A. Set ORIGIN to Wired. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss Apple TV command.

B. Set ORIGIN to either Wireless or All. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss enable the Apple TV command

C. Set ORIGIN to Wired. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss All command

D. Set ORIGIN to either Wireless or All. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss All command.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

What two actions must be taken by an engineer configuring wireless Identity-Based Networking for a WLAN to enable VLAN tagging? (Choose two.)

A. enable AAA override on the WLAN

B. create and apply the appropriate ACL to the WLAN

C. update the RADIUS server attributes for tunnel type 64, medium type 65, and tunnel private group type 81

D. configure RADIUS server with WLAN subnet and VLAN ID E. Enable VLAN Select on the wireless LAN controller and the WLAN

Correct Answer: AC

Question 13:

A company wants to switch to BYOD to reduce IT support costs for the company. Which option is an impact of BYOD should be considered?

A. increased VPN connections

B. restricted device enforcement

C. increased phishing attacks

D. decreased support calls

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

A company is deploying wireless PCs on forklifts within its new 10,000-square-foot(3048- square-meter) facility.

The clients are configured for PEAP-MS-CHAPv2 with WPA TKIP. Users report that applications frequently drop when the clients roam between access points on the floor. A professional site survey was completed.

Which configuration change is recommended to improve the speed of client roaming?

A. EAP-FAST

B. EAP-TLS

C. WPAAES

D. WPA2AES

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

What is configured to use more than one port on the OEAP to extend the wired network\’s?

A. AAA override

B. client load balancing

C. remote LAN ACL

D. remote LAN

Correct Answer: D

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Win The CCNP 350-401 Exam With The Latest 350-401 ENCOR Dumps

Latest 350-401 exam questions

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Question 1:

Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

A. Policing

B. Marking

C. Queueing

D. Classification

Correct Answer: A

Traffic Policing

In general, traffic policing allows you to control the maximum rate of traffic sent or received on an interface and to partition a network into multiple priority levels or classes of service (CoS).


Question 2:

What are the two benefits of YANG? (Choose two)

A. it collects statistical constraint analysis information

B. In enforces the use of specific encoding format for NETCONF

C. in enforces configuration semantics

D. it enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf-list

E. it enforces configuration constraints

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of a new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

A. Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B. Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C. Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D. Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Correct Answer: C

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the

responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds time stamps to the sent

packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or other dedicated probe testing.

Reference:

UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation (jitter), corruption, misordering and packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires IP SLA responder. The command to enable UDP Jitter Operation is “ip sla

responder udp-echo {destination-ip-address} [destination-port]


Question 4:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults

B. password hash

C. adding a timestamp in requests

D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 encor exam questions 5

What are the two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.

B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.

C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.

D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.

E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside addresses.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 encor exam questions 6

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.134

B. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129

C. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.133

D. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.252 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A new multicast server is being added to an existing PIM Sparse mode network. Which device in this network must the new server register with before its multicast traffic can be dispersed throughout the network?

A. IGMP Querier

B. Local PIM router

C. Local IGMP switch

D. Rendezvous Point (RP)

Correct Answer: D

reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/16-9/configuration_guide/sys_mgmt/b_169_ip_mcast_rtng_3850_cg/ ip_multicast_optimization__optimizing_pim_sparse_mode_in_a_large_ip_multicast_deployment.html


Question 8:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR

B. PITR

C. map resolver

D. map server

Correct Answer: B

Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.

Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2992605 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5-0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html


Question 9:

Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

A. wireless client

B. wireless LAN controller

C. access point

D. WCS location server

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Client_roaming_and_connectivity_decisions_explained


Question 10:

Which feature is supported by ElGRP but is not supported by OSPF?

A. route summarization

B. equal-cost load balancing

C. unequal-cost load balancing

D. route filtering

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?

A. The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded

B. The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded.

C. The network device is not configured to use NTP

D. The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging.

Correct Answer: C

“Network device is not configured to use NTP” is the only answer which may justify the fact that the system clock has not been set and thus date and time are preceded by an asterisk (*),


Question 12:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What does the destination MAC on the outer MAC header identify in a VXLAN packet?

A. the emote spine

B. the next hop

C. the leaf switch

D. the remote switch

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Select and Place:

350-401 encor exam questions 14

Correct Answer:

350-401 encor exam questions 14-2

Question 15:

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)

A. core switch

B. vBond controller

C. edge node

D. access switch

E. border node

Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:

+

Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.


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Question 1:

Clark, a professional hacker, was hired by an organization to gather sensitive Information about its competitors surreptitiously. Clark gathers the server IP address of the target organization using Whole footprinting.

Further, he entered the server IP address as input to an online tool to retrieve information such as the network range of the target organization and to identify the network topology and operating system used in the network. What is the online tool employed by Clark in the above scenario?

A. AOL

B. ARIN

C. DuckDuckGo

D. Baidu

Correct Answer: B

https://search.arin.net/rdap/?query=199.43.0.43


Question 2:

What is the proper response for a NULL scan if the port is closed?

A. SYN

B. ACK

C. FIN

D. PSH

E. RST

F. No response

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

_________ is a tool that can hide processes from the process list, can hide files, and registry entries, and intercept keystrokes.

A. Trojan

B. RootKit

C. DoS tool

D. Scanner

E. Backdoor

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Richard, an attacker, targets an MNC. In this process, he uses a footprinting technique to gather as much information as possible. Using this technique, he gathers domain information such as the target domain name, contact details of its owner, expiry date, and creation date.

With this information, he creates a map of the organization\’s network and misleads domain owners with social engineering to obtain internal details of its network. What type of footprinting technique is employed by Richard?

A. VoIP footprinting

B. VPN footprinting

C. Whois footprinting

D. Email footprinting

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What is the way to decide how a packet will move from an untrusted outside host to a protected inside that is behind a firewall, which permits the hacker to determine which ports are open and if the packets can pass through the packet-filtering of the firewall?

A. Session hijacking

B. Firewalking

C. Man-in-the-middle attack

D. Network sniffing

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the most common method to exploit the “Bash Bug” or “Shellshock” vulnerability?

A. SYN Flood

B. SSH

C. Through Web servers utilizing CGI (Common Gateway Interface) to send a malformed environment variable to a vulnerable Web server

D. Manipulate format strings in text fields

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which protocol is used for setting up secure channels between two devices, typically in VPNs?

A. PEM

B. ppp

C. IPSEC

D. SET

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools.

What kind of hackers are we talking about?

A. Black-Hat Hackers A

B. Script Kiddies

C. White-Hat Hackers D. Gray-Hat Hacker

Correct Answer: B

Script Kiddies: These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools. Even then they may not understand any or all of what they are doing.


Question 9:

Judy created a forum, one day. She discovers that a user is posting strange images without writing comments.

She immediately calls a security expert, who discovers that the following code is hidden behind those images:

What issue occurred for the users who clicked on the image?

A. The code injects a new cookie into the browser.

B. The code redirects the user to another site.

C. The code is a virus that is attempting to gather the user’s username and password.

D. This php file silently executes the code and grabs the user’s session cookie and session ID.

Correct Answer: D

document.write(); (Cookie and session ID theft)

https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/cross-site-scripting-xss-attack-test/

As seen in the indicated question, cookies are escaped and sent to the script to variable `cookie\’. If the malicious user would inject this script into the website\’s code, then it will be executed in the user\’s browser and cookies will be sent to the malicious user.


Question 10:

As a Certified Ethical Hacker, you were contracted by a private firm to conduct an external security assessment through penetration testing.

What document describes the specifics of the testing, and the associated violations, and essentially protects both the organization\’s interest and your liabilities as a tester?

A. Service Level Agreement

B. Project Scope

C. Rules of Engagement

D. Non-Disclosure Agreement

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Bob, a system administrator at TPNQM SA, concluded one day that a DMZ is not needed if he properly configures the firewall to allow access just to servers/ports, which can have direct internet access, and block access to workstations.

Bob also concluded that DMZ makes sense just when a stateful firewall is available, which is not the case with TPNQM SA. In this context, what can you say?

A. Bob can be right since DMZ does not make sense when combined with stateless firewalls

B. Bob is partially right. He does not need to separate networks if he can create rules by destination IPs, one by one

C. Bob is totally wrong. DMZ is always relevant when the company has internet servers and workstations

D. Bob is partially right. DMZ does not make sense when a stateless firewall is available

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What does the -oX flag do in a Nmap scan?

A. Perform an express scan

B. Output the results in truncated format to the screen

C. Output the results in XML format to a file

D. Perform a Xmas scan

Correct Answer: C

https://nmap.org/book/man-output.html

-oX – Requests that XML output be directed to the given filename.


Question 13:

There are multiple cloud deployment options depending on how isolated a customer\’s resources are from those of other customers. Shared environments share the costs and allow each customer to enjoy lower operations expenses.

One solution Is for a customer to Join a group of users or organizations to share a cloud environment. What is this cloud deployment option called?

A. Hybrid

B. Community

C. Public

D. Private

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

If a tester is attempting to ping a target that exists but receives no response or a response that states the destination is unreachable, ICMP may be disabled and the network may be using TCP. Which other option could the tester use to get a response from a host using TCP?

A. Traceroute

B. Hping

C. TCP ping

D. Broadcast ping

Correct Answer: B

https://tools.kali.org/information-gathering/hping3


Question 15:

Which is the first step followed by Vulnerability Scanners for scanning a network?

A. OS Detection

B. Firewall detection

C. TCP/UDP Port scanning

D. Checking if the remote host is alive

Correct Answer: D

Vulnerability scanning solutions perform vulnerability penetration tests on the organizational network in three steps:

1. Locating nodes: The first step in vulnerability scanning is to locate live hosts in the target network using various scanning techniques.

2. Performing service and OS discovery on them: After detecting the live hosts in the target network, the next step is to enumerate the open ports and services and the operating system on the target systems.

3. Testing those services and OS for known vulnerabilities: Finally, after identifying the open services and the operating system running on the target nodes, they are tested for known vulnerabilities.


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    B. policing

    C. CBWFQ

    D. LLQ

    Correct Answer: B


    Question 2:

    Which field within the access request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

    A. authorized services

    B. authenticator

    C. username

    D. password

    Correct Answer: D


    Question 3:

    Drag and Drop

    Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

    Select and Place:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 3

    Correct Answer:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 3-2

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    From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).

    We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0.

    So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

    Let \’s taking another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 ->

    The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

    172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.


    Question 4:

    Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

    A. 172.9.0.0/16

    B. 172.28.0.0/16

    C. 192.0.0.0/8

    D. 209.165.201.0/24

    Correct Answer: B

    This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:

    1. Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

    2. Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

    3. Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

    Only network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).


    Question 5:

    How does authentication differ from authorization?

    A. Authentication is used to verify a person\’s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

    B. Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network.

    C. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

    D. Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access.

    Correct Answer: C


    Question 6:

    Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

    A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

    B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

    C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

    D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

    E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

    F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

    Correct Answer: BDE


    Question 7:

    Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

    A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

    B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

    C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

    D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.

    E. It uses the default administrative distance.

    F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

    Correct Answer: AE


    Question 8:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 8

    Which command provides this output?

    A. show ip route B. show cdp neighbor

    C. show ip interface

    D. show interface

    Correct Answer: B


    Question 9:

    Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

    A. Ansible

    B. Python

    C. Puppet

    D. Chef

    Correct Answer: A


    Question 10:

    Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?

    A. {“key”: “value”}

    B. [“key”, “value”]

    C. {“key”, “value”}

    D. (“key”: “value”)

    Correct Answer: A


    Question 11:

    Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

    A. WPA2 + AES

    B. WPA + AES

    C. WEP

    D. WPA + TKIP

    Correct Answer: A


    Question 12:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 12

    Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 12-2

    A. Option A

    B. Option B

    C. Option C

    D. Option D

    Correct Answer: B

    ipv6 unicast-routing statement included (IPv6 is enabled on the router). Compared to the exhibit, Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 have correct configurations. The route to subnet 2001:db8:4::/64 points to R18\’s Fa1/0 (correct next-hop).


    Question 13:

    DRAG DROP

    Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

    Select and Place:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 13

    Correct Answer:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 13-2

    Question 14:

    Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 14

    A. Set PMF to Required.

    B. Enable MAC Filtering.

    C. Enable WPA Policy.

    D. Set Fast Transition to Enabled

    Correct Answer: A


    Question 15:

    Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 15

    A. Layer 2 switch

    B. Router

    C. Load balancer

    D. firewall

    Correct Answer: B

    PC–A and PC-B are not in the same network. Switches send traffic in layer 2 and within the same VLA while routers route traffic to different subnets and at layer 3.


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    New question 1 of 13

    Your company wants to Increase access security In both their NFS and ISCSI environments. Currently ISCSI Is not authenticated and NFS relies only on export policies for security. Which two enhancements do you use to satisfy this new criteria? (Choose two.)

    A. Enable Kerberos for NFS exports.
    B. Enable Kerberos for iSCSI LUNaccess.
    C. Enable Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) for NFS exports.
    D. Enable Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) for ISCSI LUN access.

    Correct Answer: BC

    New question 2 of 13

    Exhibit.

    After an ONTAP upgrade, you notice that several cluster LIFs are not on their home ports as shown in the exhibit. Which LIF option would change this outcome?

    A. the subnet-name option
    B. the failover-policy option
    C. the auto-revert option
    D. the data-protocol option

    Correct Answer: D

    New question 3 of 13

    Which two types of capacity tiers are supported with FabrlcPool aggregates In ONTAP 9.8? (Choose two.)

    A. SWIFT Object Store
    B. NFS Export
    C. StorageGRID Object Storage
    D. S3 Object Store

    Correct Answer: BC

    New question 4 of 13

    Exhibit.

    You recently added a new ESXi host to your VMware vSphere cluster. However, you cannot mount any of the existing NFS datastores to the host. Referring to the exhibit, which action solves the problem?

    A. Add NFSv4 to the access protocols.
    B. Enable Kerberos in the export policy.
    C. Add SMB/CIFS to the access protocols.
    D. Add HOST 3\’s IP address to the NFS export policy.

    Correct Answer: B

    New question 5 of 13

    Your company wants their newly Installed ONTAP system to automatically send telemetry data to NetApp to provide early notification of any security risks, bug fixes, and ONTAP updates. Furthermore, In case of hardware failures, a support case should be opened automatically at NetApp. Which two NetApp components satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

    A. Cloud Insights
    B. Active IQ
    C. ONTAP AutoSupport
    D. Active IQ Unified Manager

    Correct Answer: AB

    New question 6 of 13

    You want to prepare your ONTAP cluster and your ESXI cluster to connect NFS datastores over a 10-GbE network using Jumbo frames. In this scenario, which three configurations would accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

    A. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ESXi hosts.
    B. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9216 for your switches.
    C. Enable Jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ESXI hosts.
    D. Enable Jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ONTAP cluster.
    E. Enable Jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ONTAP cluster.

    Correct Answer: BDE

    New question 7 of 13

    A user wants existing data in a FlexVol created in ONTAP 9.1 to be placed into a FlexGroup volume with ONTAP 9.8. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    A. Use XCP to copy data from a FlexVol to a FlexGroup.
    B. Use SnapMirror to replicate data from FlexVol to FlexGroup.
    C. You can convert the FlexVol volume to a FlexGroup volume.
    D. A FlexVol to FlexGroup conversion is not supported.

    Correct Answer: AD

    New question 8 of 13

    Your company runs a NetApp AFF A220 cluster as a file server for NFS and SMB. You want to use one of the unused ports to connect a single Windows host directly, using FC. Youhave converted the UTA2 ports e0e and e0f to FC and equipped them with a 16-Gbps FC transceiver. Your Windows host fails to connect to the storage.

    In this scenario, which action solves the problem?

    A. Use an FC switch between storage and host.
    B. Use the arbitrated loop topology on storage and host.
    C. Use the point-to-point topology on all ports.
    D. Use an Ethernet switch between storage and host.

    Correct Answer: B

    New question 9 of 13

    You have commissioned a new AFF A250 MetroCluster over IP configuration. Your company requires an automatic switchover to the surviving site In case of a site disaster. What do you need to configure to fulfill this requirement?

    A. cluster failover
    B. ONTAP Mediator service
    C. storage failover
    D. automated unplanned switchover

    Correct Answer: B

    New question 10 of 13

    Exhibit.

    You have a 2-node NetApp FAS2750 ONTAP cluster. You create a new 20-GB LUN In a new 100-GB volume and write 10 GB of data to the LUN. No storage efficiencies are enabled for the volume or aggregate.
    Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    A. ONTAP reports that the volume Is using 10 GB of Its containing aggregate.
    B. ONTAP reports the volume as 20% full.
    C. ONTAP reports that the volume Is using 100 GB of its containing aggregate.
    D. ONTAP reports the volume as 10% full.

    Correct Answer: BC

    New question 11 of 13

    After creating several volumes, you notice that the hosting aggregates Immediately show a decrease In available space. Which volume setting would prevent this outcome?

    A. space SLO set to “thick”
    B. space guarantee set to “none”
    C. space SLO set to “semi-thick”
    D. space guarantee set to “volume”

    Correct Answer: C

    New question 12 of 13

    You have created a new FlexCache cache volume and want to warm the cache before clients access the cache volume for the first time. In this scenario, how would you accomplish this task?

    A. Prepopulate the cache volume with data from the origin volume using the flexcache prepopulate start command.
    B. Enable block-level Invalidation using the volume flexcache origin config modify command.
    C. Copy the data from the origin volume to the cache volume with the NetApp XCP Migration Tool.
    D. Synchronize the origin and cache first with the volume flexcache sync-properties command.

    Correct Answer: C

    New question 13 of 13

    Your company requests that the monthly performance data of your ONTAP 9.8 cluster be exported to a CSV file for further processing. In this scenario, which three NetApp products satisfy this requirement? (Choose three.)

    A. Active IQ Unified Manager
    B. Cloud Insights
    C. Active IQ Config Advisor
    D. ONTAP System Manager
    E. Active IQ OneCollect

    Correct Answer: ACD

    ……

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    NEW QUESTION 1

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power BI. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records.

    During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table. Solution: You add a WHERE clause to the SQL statement. Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: A

    The WHERE clause has its effects before the data is imported.
    Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-sql-tutorial

    NEW QUESTION 2

    You need to recommend a strategy to consistently define the business unit, department, and product category data and make the data usable across reports. What should you recommend?

    A. Create a shared dataset for each standardized entity.
    B. Create dataflows for the standardized data and make the dataflows available for use in all imported datasets.
    C. For every report, create and use a single shared dataset that contains the standardized data.
    D. For the three entities, create exports of the data from the Power Bl model to Excel and store the data in Microsoft OneDrive for others to use as a source.

    Correct Answer: B

    NEW QUESTION 3

    You have a prospective customer list that contains 1,500 rows of data. The list contains the following fields:
    1. First name
    2. Last name
    3. Email address
    4. State/Region
    5. Phone number

    You import the list into Power Query Editor. You need to ensure that the list contains records for each State/Region to which you want to target a marketing campaign. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    A. Open the Advanced Editor.
    B. Select Column quality.
    C. Enable Column profiling based on the entire dataset.
    D. Select Column distribution.
    E. Select Column profile.

    Correct Answer: CE

    In the Power query, the load preview by default is 1000 rows. By default, the column quality also only looks at the first 1000 rows. You can verify this by the status bar at the bottom of the Power query window. To change the profiling so it analyses the entire column of data, select the profiling status in the status bar. Then select Column profiling based on the entire data set.
    https://theexcelclub.com/data-profiling-views-in-power-query-excel-and-power-bi/

    NEW QUESTION 4

    HOTSPOT
    You have a folder of monthly transaction extracts. You plan to create a report to analyze the transaction data. You receive the following email message: “Hi, I’ve put 24 files of monthly transaction data onto the shared drive. File Transactions201801.csv through Transaction201812.csv have four columns while files Transactions201901.csv through Transaction201912.csv have the same four columns plus an additional three columns. Each file contains 10 to 50 transactions.”

    You get data from the folder and select Combine and Load. The Combine Files dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

    For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
    NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    Hot Area:

    Box 1: Yes
    The four columns used in the 2018 transactions are already displayed.
    Box 2: Yes
    The columns used are based on the entire dataset. The additional columns in the 2019 files will be detected.
    Box 3: Yes

    Note: Under the hoods, Power BI will automatically detect which delimiter to use, and may even promote the first row as headers. You can manually change the delimiter, or define how Power BI should handle data types. You can set it to automatically detect data types based on the first 200 rows or the entire dataset or you can even opt out of the detection of data types.

    NEW QUESTION 5

    You have a Power BI dashboard that monitors the quality of manufacturing processes. The dashboard contains the following elements:
    A line chart that shows the number of defective products manufactured by day. A KPI visual that shows the current daily percentage of defective products manufactured. You need to be notified when the daily percentage of defective products manufactured exceeds 3%.

    What should you create?

    A. a QandA visual
    B. a subscription
    C. a smart narrative visual
    D. an alert

    Correct Answer: D

    NEW QUESTION 6

    You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard. You need to ensure that consumers of the dashboard can give you feedback that will be visible to the other consumers of the dashboard. What should you use?

    A. Feedback
    B. Subscribe
    C. Comments
    D. Mark is a favorite

    Correct Answer: C

    https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/consumer/end-user-comment

    NEW QUESTION 7

    You have the following requirements:
    1. The export of reports that contain Personally Identifiable Information (Pll) must be prevented.
    2. Data used for financial decisions must be reviewed and approved before use.
    For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

    NEW QUESTION 8

    You need to review the data for which there are concerns before creating the data model. What should you do in Power Query Editor?

    A. Select Column distribution.
    B. Select the sales_amount column and apply a number filter.
    C. Select Column profile, and then select the sales_amount column.
    D. Transform the sales_amount column to replace negative values with 0.

    Correct Answer: D

    Scenario: Data Concerns
    You are concerned with the quality and completeness of the sales data. You plan to verify the sales data for negative sales amounts. How to convert negative numbers into positive numb, editor and right click, select transform, and choose an absolute value. That would give the positive number outcome you\’re looking for.

    Reference:
    https://www.xspdf.com/resolution/50510644.html

    NEW QUESTION 9

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several Power View sheets.

    You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power Bl service. Solution: From the Power Bl service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Connect Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: B

    We need to click “Import”, not “Connect”.
    References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files

    NEW QUESTION 10

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power BI. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records. During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table.

    Solution: From Power Query Editor, you import the table and then add a filter step to the query. Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: A

    NEW QUESTION 11

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several Power View sheets.

    You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power Bl service. Solution: Copy the workbook to Microsoft OneDrive for Business. From Excel, click Publish to Power Bl, and then click
    Upload. Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: B

    NEW QUESTION 12

    You create a dataset sourced from dozens of flat files in Azure Blob storage. The dataset uses incremental refresh. From powerbi.com, you deploy the dataset and several related reports to Microsoft Power BI Premium capacity. You discover that the dataset refresh fails after the refresh runs out of resources.
    What is a possible cause of the issue?

    A. Query folding is not occurring.
    B. You selected Only refresh complete periods.
    C. The data type of the column used to partition the data changed.
    D. A filter is missing on the report.

    Correct Answer: A

    The Power BI service partitions data based on a date range. This is what enables only certain partitions to be refreshed incrementally. To make this work, the partition filter conditions are pushed down to the source system by including them in the queries. Using Power Query terminology, this is called “query folding”. It is not recommended that incremental refresh is used when the required query folding cannot take place.

    Reference: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/incremental-refresh-query-folding/

    NEW QUESTION 13

    HOTSPOT
    You need to create a relationship in the dataset for RLS. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
    NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    Box 1: many-to-one
    Each employee in the Sales Employees table is assigned to one sales region. Multiple employees can be assigned to each region. The Suppliers table has a Region column.
    Box 2: Suppliers table

    ……

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    Drag and drop each mobile technology to the description of its use. Some answers will not be used.

    Q2.

    A few users have been noticing ongoing degradation of performance in a VDI environment A technician checks the
    environment and discovers the shared VM is experiencing maximum CPU utilization Which of the following will the
    Does the technician MOST likely configure to resolve the issue?

    A. Network capacity
    B. Resource pooling
    C. Memory allocation
    D. Replication scripts

    Correct Answer: B

    Q3.

    A Windows 10 Pro user wants to initialize BitLocker to protect the system\\’s data while it is at rest. The computer does
    not have a TPM. Which of the following is required to satisfy this need?

    A. A BD-RE disc
    B. An internal hard drive
    C. A USB flash drive
    D. A network share

    Correct Answer: B

    Q4.

    A technician is installing a pair of 7.2K rpm hard drives into a NAS unit. Which of the following will provide the HIGHEST levels of performance for the setup?

    A. RAID 0
    B. RAID 1
    C. RAID 5
    D. RAID 10

    Correct Answer: C

    Q5.

    A technician deployed a new computer and patched the unit to the data jack. However, no Ethernet connection is
    detected. The technician suspects the patch panel is incorrectly numbered. Which of the following tools will the
    technician MOST likely use to locate the jack on the patch panel?

    A. A multimeter
    B. A tone generator and a probe
    C. A loopback plug
    D. A cable tester

    Correct Answer: B

    Q6.

    A technician was asked to virtualize four existing PCs before decommissioning them. The resulting VMs are imported
    into a new VM workstation running a hypervisor on top of an OS Three of the VMs are running property, but the entire
    system locks up when trying to start the fourth VM. Which of the following should the technician have reviewed prior to creating the VMs to prevent this from occurring? (Select TWO)

    A. Hypervisor requirements
    B. Storage requirements
    C. Resource requirements
    D. Network requirements
    E. Backup requirements
    F. Security requirements

    Correct Answer: AF

    Q7.

    SIMULATION
    You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company. You must use the company\’s WLAN as all e-mail services are on default non-secure ports. The company\’s WLAN is broadcasting across the company for easier access. Users must authenticate to the server with the same credentials in order to send and receive emails. Authentication should be enforced in the settings of the mobile device using the following parameters:

    • Username: [email protected]
    • Password: P@$$w0rd
    • Outgoing server: mail.techies.com
    • Incoming server: pop3.techies.com
    • Company SSID: Techies
    • Security Key: CA:FE:33:71:00

    INSTRUCTIONS:
    Update the mobile device\’s parameters to fit the criteria and support the strongest encryption available.
    If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

    A. Check the answer in the explanation.

    Correct Answer: A

    For the WiFi setup, do the following:
    1. Enable 802.11 b/g Radio
    2. Choose the Techies SSID, and enter the CA: FE:33:71:00 Security Key.
    3. Choose the “Same as Incoming Server” option below.

    Q8.

    A technician needs to install an IP-based camera in a remote location. The technician runs a Cat 6 cable to the location
    and connects it to the camera. Which of the following is needed for the camera to operate?

    A. USB to Ethernet adapter
    B. DVI cable
    C. PoE switch
    D. H.261 codec

    Correct Answer: C

    Q9.

    A customer recently moved a high-end graphics card from a known-working computer to a different computer. The
    computer works without issue when viewing email and web pages or when using certain applications. However, when a
    game with high-end graphics requirements is opened, the program will run for a few minutes before the computer shuts down. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem?

    A. Power supply wattage
    B. Video RAM
    C. CPU frequency
    D. Monitor resolution

    Correct Answer: A

    Q10.

    Which of the following peripheral types is MOST likely to be used to input actions into a PC?

    A. Webcam
    B. Mouse
    C. Monitor
    D. Optical drive

    Correct Answer: B

    Q11.

    A shipping department is having problems with its thermal label printer. Two columns on the left are not appearing on all labels. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?

    A. Verify the ribbon is correctly aligned to the label
    B. Run a label calibration
    C. Remove stuck labels from the print path
    D. Replace the print head

    Correct Answer: A

    Q12.

    A user is having trouble printing and has asked a technician for help. The technician is able to print remotely from the
    print server. Which of the following will the technician MOST likely need to perform NEXT? (Choose two.)

    A. Modify the environment variables on the computer
    B. Check the AD account settings for the user
    C. Replace the printer\’s network cable
    D. Clear the print queue on the server
    E. Check the network settings on the computer
    F. Delete all the files from the server print spooler

    Correct Answer: DE

    Q13.

    A customer wants to purchase a new home computer. The machine will mainly be used for internal browsing and
    streaming video, except on weekends when the customer \’ son will use it to play games with friends. Which of the
    following should the technician focus on to meet these requirements?

    A. 80mm case fans
    B. Four-core processor
    C. RAID 5 array
    D. 16GB DDR2 memory
    E. Dual monitors
    F. Encrypted hard drive

    Correct Answer: BE

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    QUESTION 1

    Match each device series on the left with its placement in an MBH network on the right. (Not all options will be used).

    QUESTION 2

    What command is used to insert the core node area border router into the data path?

    A. update-source loopback0
    B. set path-selection backup 1 install
    C. next-hop-self
    D. insert-data-path

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 3

    Which technology uses two or three antennas to receive (input) the signal and two or three radios to transmit (output),
    plus special signal processing to improve range, reliability, and throughput.

    A. HSPA
    B. CDMA
    C. LTE
    D. MIMO

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 4

    Which three clock types can an ASR920 router be configured as? (Choose three.)

    A. Boundary clock
    B. Clock
    C. Ordinary clock
    D. Regular clock
    E. Transparent clock
    F. Ordinary, Regular

    Correct Answer: ACE

    QUESTION 5

    SyncE clocking is provided at what OSI layer?

    A. Layer 3
    B. Layer 2 and 3
    C. Layer 1
    D. Layer 2

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 6

    What are the three purposes of partitioning the backhaul network into independent IGP domains? (Choose three.)

    A. to not enhance stability
    B. to reduce the size of the routing and forwarding tables on individual routers
    C. to ensure that reachability is not possible between domains
    D. to not ensure stability
    E. faster convergence
    F. to enhance stability

    Correct Answer: BEF

    QUESTION 7

    What can PTP be used to synchronize?

    A. Time, frequency, phase
    B. Rate
    C. Phase, time
    D. Frequency

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 8

    High availability at the transport network layer is provided through the combination of what three technologies? (Choose three.)

    A. Alternate Route
    B. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
    C. BGP
    D. HSRP
    E. BFD
    F. BGP Core and Edge Fast Reroute and Edge protection

    Correct Answer: ABF

    QUESTION 9

    What does virtualization of the core route reflectors do?

    A. limit the availability
    B. does not enhance resiliency
    C. enhance resiliency or availability
    D. adds complexity

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 10

    Which type of backhaul network does the Cisco Unified RAN Backhaul use?

    A. SONET
    B. ATM
    C. IP MPLS
    D. TDM

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 11

    When configuring SAToP what must the framing be configured as?

    A. Framed
    B. Native
    C. Structured
    D. Unframed

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 12

    Which technology is a mechanism that emulates point-to-point connection over a packet-switched network?

    A. LFA FRR
    B. SyncE
    C. PWE3
    D. TDM

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 13

    Which two options configures an ASR920 router as a hybrid clock? (Choose two.)

    A. ptp clock boundary domain 0
    B. ptp clock boundary domain 0 hybrid
    C. ptp clock ordinary domain 0 hybrid
    D. ptp clock ordinary domain 0
    E. ptp clock

    Correct Answer: BC

    QUESTION 14

    What type of PW is the CESoPSN?

    A. Structured and unstructured
    B. Unstructured
    C. Unframed
    D. Structured

    Correct Answer: D

    Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr903/software/guide/cem/16-7-1/b-cemds3-xe-16-7-1-asr900/b-cem-ds3-xe-16-7-1-asr900_chapter_010.pdf

    QUESTION 15

    What is the preferred method for frequency synchronization in a Unified MPLS for IP MBH Communication?

    A. SyncE/IEEE 1588
    B. Local devices Clocking Sync
    C. IP MBH Communication doesn\\’t require Synchronization
    D. NTP

    Correct Answer: A

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    QUESTION 1

    What are the two functions of a resource model? (Choose two.)

    A. It executes create, retrieves, updates, and delete actions for an entity
    B. It loads lists of entity models
    C. It is made available in the Magento API for the purpose of data manipulation
    D. It maps an entity to one or more database rows
    Correct Answer: AD
    https://devdocs.magento.com/guides/v2.4/architecture/archi_perspectives/persist_layer.html

    QUESTION 2

    You are adding a new menu item to the admin backend which will link to a custom backend page.
    The declaration of the route:

    What do you specify as the menu item action attribute value so it links to /admin/mycompany/mymodule/?

    A. action=”adminhtml/mycompany/mymodule/”
    B. action=”admin/mycompany/mymodule/”
    C. It is not possible without extending the adminhtml route in routes.xml
    D. action=”mycompany/mymodule/”
    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 3

    You got a notification about the error that occurred in a production environment. The merchant gave you the error
    identifier.
    How do you find the error message based on the identifier?

    A. An error is written to the var/log/exception.log file including the identifier
    B. The error is sent to the pre-configured error email with the identifier in the subject
    C. A file with a name matching the identifier is written to the var/report folder
    D. An error message is written to the database table error_log with an error_id field matching the identifier
    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 4

    Which two ways does Magento persist category relationships in the database? (Choose two.)

    A. Using slash-separated values in the path field
    B. in the table catalog_category_index
    C. in the parent_id field
    D. Using comma-separated values in the parent-ids field
    Correct Answer: BC

    QUESTION 5

    You have created a new product type, sample, and need to customize how it renders on the shopping cart page.
    Keeping maintainability in mind, how do you add a new renderer?

    A. Create the layout file, checkout_cart_item_renderers.xml, reference the checkout.cart.item.renderers block and add a
    new block with an as=”sample” attribute.
    B. Override the cart/form.phtml template and add logic for the sample product type.
    C. Create the layout file, checkout_cart_index.xml, and reference the checkout. cart. renderers block and add a block
    with the as=”sample” attribute.
    D. Create the layout file, checkout_cart_index.xml, and update the cart page\’s component to appropriately render
    the sample product type.
    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 6

    Your module, MyCompany_MyModule, is using the front name mymodule. You need to locate the class responsible for
    the frontend path /mymodule/custom.
    What file contains the controller class for the frontend path /mymodule/custom?

    A. Controller/Custom/Index.php
    B. Controller/Custom.php
    C. Controller/MyModule/Custom/Index.php
    D. Controller/Frontend/MyModule/Custom.php
    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 7

    While integrating a merchant\’s product information management system with Magento, you create a module
    MyCompany_MerchantPim that adds a catalog product EAV attribute pim_entity_id programmatically. In which type of
    setup script do you create the EAV attribute?

    A. Setup/InstallSchema.php
    B. Setup/UpgradeSchema.php
    C. Setup/InstallEntity.php
    D. Setup/UpgradeData.php
    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 8

    You added a plugin declaration to MyCompany/MyModule/etc/di.xml:

    What will be the effect of this declaration?

    A. An exception because plugins must not be applied to the interfaces
    B. An exception because of the syntax error in the declaration
    C. The plugin will be ignored because ActionInterface will never be instantiated directly
    D. The plugin will be applied to all implementors of the ActionInterface
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/62734221/magento2-writing-plugins-for-interface

    QUESTION 9

    How does Magento store customer address attribute values?

    A. A customer address is a flat entity, so all values are stored in the customer_address_entity table
    B. Customer address is not an entity, so its properties are customer attributes
    C. Customer address is an attribute of the customer, so it doesn\’t has its own attributes
    D. Customer address is an EAV entity, so all values are stored in the customer_address_entity table, and related values
    tables
    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 10

    A module MyModule needs to send notifications to customers only when the account was modified from a mobile app
    using the REST web APIs.
    You decided to implement an observer for the customer_save_after_data_object event.
    In which file do you declare the observer?

    A. etc/webapi_rest/events.xml
    B. etc/adminhtml/events.xml
    C. etc/webapi/rest_events.xml
    D. etc/events.xml
    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 11

    While reviewing a layout file named sales_order_view.xml you notice the element
    What is the purpose of this element?

    A. Replaces the customer_account handle with sales_order_view
    B. Nothing, this element has been deprecated
    C. Adds the customer_account handle to the page\’s handles list
    D. Updates the current page handle to customer_account
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: https://devdocs.magento.com/guides/v2.2/frontend-devguide/layouts/xmlinstructions.html#fedg_layout_xml-instruc_ex_upd

    QUESTION 12

    During a code review of a module MyCompany_PaymentCurrencies you see a configuration field declared in the file
    etc/adminhtml/system.xml:

    What is the consequence of the attribute shown in the store being set to 0?

    A. The field value will not be accessible on the storefront by calling ScopeConfigInterface::getValue() with a
    $scopeType argument of `store\\’.
    B. The input field will not be visible if a store view scope is selected in the system configuration
    C. The input field will only be visible if a website\\’s default store scope is selected in the system configuration
    D. The input field will be disabled if a store view scope is selected in the system configuration
    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 13

    Magento allows you to specify custom values per store for product attributes created in the admin panel.
    Which architectural pattern makes it possible?

    A. Store Manager
    B. Extension Attribute
    C. Entity Attribute Value
    D. Dependency Injection
    Correct Answer: C

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    QUESTION 1
    A developer has created a deployment that should launch a pod to run their database service. The pod should launch
    with a metadata name of “Cisco-DB,” and the developer has added it to the “Cisco” namespace in their deployment.
    Which Kubernetes command confirms that the service is running and usable?
    A. kubectl -n Cisco get services | grep “Cisco-DB”
    B. kubectl -n Cisco get pods | grep “Cisco-DB”
    C. kubectl get pods | grep “Cisco-DB”
    D. kubectl -n Cisco get service | grep “Cisco-DB”
    Correct Answer: C


    QUESTION 2
    The E-commerce application is being monitored using AppDynamics. AppDynamics has noticed that the application
    response has degraded and has identified some thread contention that might be the cause of the delays.
    Where in the interface does AppDynamics bring this to your attention?
    A. Potential Issues section of an individual transaction
    B. Transaction Score graph of a business transaction
    C. Code Deadlock section of the Event List
    D. Slow Calls and Errors tab of the application
    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 3
    Which step must be taken to enable centralized logging in a Kubernetes environment?
    A. No steps need to be taken. The master node automatically aggregates logs from all worker nodes and stores them
    on the specified persistent volume.
    B. Create a CustomResourceDefinition in each deployment that specifies the IP or names the log collector.
    C. Deploy a sidecar node that aggregates logs from the entire cluster.
    D. Create a DaemonSet that deploys a container with a logging agent on every node in the cluster.
    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 4
    FILL BLANK
    Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
    When creating multiple containers, in order to allow communication with each other, you must create a __________ of
    type _________ .
    Correct Answer: pod, volume


    QUESTION 5
    What is as responsibility for teams running private cloud servers that is less of a concern when running in the public
    cloud?
    A. cost
    B. metrics and monitoring
    C. hardware maintenance
    D. credentials management
    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 6
    A DevOps engineer has built a new container and must open port 8080 for intercontainer communication. Which
    command must be added in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
    A. EXPOSE 8080
    B. FIREWALL ADD-PORT 8080
    C. PORT 8080
    D. OPEN PORT 8080
    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 7
    ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if
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    A. The default path is not used.
    B. The volume is not created.
    C. The volume is created.
    D. The volume is created with errors.
    Correct Answer: A

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    300-910 exam questions-q8

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?
    A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.
    B. The requests module is not installed.
    C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.
    D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.
    Correct Answer: B


    QUESTION 9
    FILL BLANK
    Fill in the blanks to complete the line of Python code that sends a message to a Webex Teams room or person.

    300-910 exam questions-q9

    Correct Answer: post, messages

    QUESTION 10
    When DevOps practices are integrated into an existing organization, which two characteristics are positive indicators of
    DevOps maturity? (Choose two.)
    A. mean time between success
    B. mean time to recover
    C. cone testing
    D. change lead time
    E. age of codebase
    Correct Answer: BD

    QUESTION 11
    A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web-server and it must run as an executable. Which command must
    be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
    A. ENTRYPOINT
    B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]
    C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]
    D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}
    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 12
    A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which
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    A. Jenkins
    B. Genie CLI
    C. Travis CI
    D. Python YAML data libraries
    Correct Answer: A


    QUESTION 13
    Which method is a safe way to provide a username/password combination to an application running as a service in a
    Docker container?
    A. encode the value with base64 in a secure DNS CTEXT entry
    B. as an environment variable in the Dockerfile
    C. Docker environment variable
    D. Docker secrets
    Correct Answer: D

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