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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 810-502 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 29
In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functions of the FC-1 layer?
A. Encoding and decoding
B. Routing and flow control
C. Interface mapping and flow control
D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FC-1 Layer: It defines how data is encoded prior to transmission and decoded upon receipt. At the transmitter node, an 8-bit character is encoded into a 10-bit transmission character. This character is then transmitted to the receiver node. At the receiver node, the 10-bit character is passed to the FC-1 layer,  which decodes the 10-bit character into the original 8-bit character. FC links with speed 10 Gbps and above use 64-bit to 66-bit encoding algorithm. This layer also defines the transmission words such as FC frame delimiters, which identify the start and end of a frame and primitive signals that indicate events at a transmitting port. In addition to these, the FC-1 layer performs link initialization and error recovery.
QUESTION 30
What is a security implementation in NAS environments?
A. Kerberos
B. Port binding
C. S_ID Lockdown
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security Implementation in NAS
NAS is open to multiple exploits, including viruses, worms, unauthorized access, snooping, and data tampering. Various security mechanisms are implemented in NAS to secure data and the storage networking infrastructure. Permissions and ACLs form the first level of protection to NAS resources by restricting accessibility and sharing. These permissions are deployed over and above the default behaviors and attributes associated with files and folders. In addition, various other authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as Kerberos and directory services, are implemented to verify the identity of network users and define their privileges. Similarly, firewalls protect the storage infrastructure from unauthorized access and malicious attacks.
QUESTION 31
In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning?
A. Restricts RSCN traffic
B. Isolates fabric services
C. Enables online volume expansion
D. Provides non-disruptive data migration
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Zoning
Zoning is an FC switch function that enables node ports within the fabric to be logically segmented into groups and communicate with each other within the group. Whenever a change takes place in the name server database, the fabric controller sends a Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to all the nodes impacted by the change. If zoning is not configured, the fabric controller sends an RSCN to all the nodes in the fabric. Involving the nodes that are not impacted by the change results in increased fabric-management traffic. For a large fabric, the amount of FC traffic generated due to this process can be significant and might impact the host-to-storage data traffic. Zoning helps to limit the number of RSCNs in a fabric. In the presence of zoning, a fabric sends the RSCN to only those nodes in a zone where the change has occurred.
QUESTION 32
What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?
A. 1

B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centers to access a single copy of data?
A. VPLEX
B. VMAX
C. VNX
D. Vblock
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMC VPLEX
EMC VPLEX is the next-generation solution for block-level virtualization and data mobility both within and across datacenters. The VPLEX appliance resides between the servers and heterogeneous storage devices. It forms a pool of distributed block storage resources and enables creating virtual storage volumes from the pool. These virtual volumes are then allocated to the servers. The virtual-to-physical storage mapping remains hidden to the servers. VPLEX provides nondisruptive data mobility among physical storage devices to balance the application workload and to enable both local and remote data access. The mapping of virtual volumes to physical volumes can be changed dynamically by the administrator. VPLEX uses a unique clustering architecture and distributed cache coherency that enable multiple hosts located across two locations to access a single copy of data. VPLEX also provides the capability to mirror
  data of a virtual volume both within and across locations. This enables hosts at different data centers to access cache-coherent copies of the same virtual volume. To avoid application downtime due to outage at a data center, the workload can be moved quickly to another data center. Applications continue accessing the same virtual volume and remain uninterrupted by the data mobility. The VPLEX family consists of three products: VPLEX Local, VPLEX Metro, and VPLEX Geo. EMC VPLEX Local delivers local federation, which provides simplified management and nondisruptive data mobility across heterogeneous arrays within a data center. EMC VPLEX Metro delivers distributed federation, which provides data access and mobility between two VPEX clusters within synchronous distances that support round-trip latency up to 5 ms. EMC VPLEX Geo delivers data access and mobility between two VPLEX clusters within asynchronous distances (that support round-trip latency up to 50 ms).
QUESTION 34
Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to a secondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system?
A. MirrorView
B. SnapView
C. RepliStor
D. SRDF
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMC MirrorView
The MirrorView software enables EMC VNX storage arraybased remote replication. It replicates the contents of a primary volume to a secondary volume that resides on a different VNX storage system. The MirrorView family consists of MirrorView/Synchronous (MirrorView/S) and MirrorView/Asynchronous (MirrorView/A) solutions. MirrorView/S is a synchronous product that mirrors data between local and remote storage systems. MirrorView/A is an asynchronous product that offers extended distance replication based on periodic incremental update model. It periodically updates the remote copy of the data with all the changes that occurred on the primary copy since the last update.
QUESTION 35
A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings. Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
A. Incremental
B. Cumulative
C. Full
D. Differential
810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backup Granularity

Backup granularity depends on business needs and the required RTO/RPO. Based on the granularity, backups can be categorized as full, incremental, and cumulative (or differential). Most organizations use a combination of these three backup types to meet their backup and recovery requirements. Figure on the slide depicts the different backup granularity levels. Full backup is a backup of the complete data on the production volumes. A full backup copy is created by copying the data in the production volumes to a backup storage device. It provides a faster recovery but requires more storage space and also takes more time to back up. Incremental backup copies the data that has changed since the last full or incremental backup, whichever has occurred more recently. This is much faster than a full backup (because the volume of data backed up is restricted to the changed data only) but takes longer to restore . Cumulative backup copies the data that has changed since the last full backup. This method takes longer than an incremental backup but is faster to restore. Another way to implement full backup is synthetic (or constructed) backup. This method is used when the production volume resources cannot be exclusively reserved for a backup process for extended periods to perform a full backup. It is usually created from the most recent full backup and all the incremental backups performed after that full backup. This backup is called synthetic because the backup is not created directly from production data. A synthetic full backup enables a full backup copy to be created offline without disrupting the I/O operation on the production volume. This also frees up network resources from the backup process, making them available for other production uses.
QUESTION 36
What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Scale-out NAS
The scale-out NAS implementation pools multiple nodes together in a cluster. A node may consist of either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operation as a single entity.
  A scale-out NAS provides the capability to scale its resources by simply adding nodes to a clustered NAS architecture. The cluster works as a single NAS device and is managed centrally. Nodes can be added to the cluster, when more performance or more capacity is needed, without causing any downtime. Scale-out NAS provides the flexibility to use many nodes of moderate performance and availability characteristics to produce a total system that has better aggregate performance and availability. It also provides ease of use,
low cost, and theoretically unlimited scalability. Scale-out NAS creates a single file system that runs on all nodes in the cluster. All information is shared among nodes, so the entire file system is accessible by clients connecting to any node in the cluster. Scale-out NAS stripes data across all nodes in a cluster along with mirror or parity protection. As data is sent from clients to the cluster, the data is divided and allocated to different nodes in parallel. When a client sends a request to read a file, the scale-out NAS retrieves the appropriate blocks from multiple nodes, recombines the blocks into a file, and presents the file to the client. As nodes are added, the file system grows dynamically and data is evenly distributed to every node. Each node added to the cluster increases the aggregate storage, memory, CPU, and network capacity. Hence, cluster performance also increases.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
2.Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
400-151 exam 
Correct:D E
3.What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
4.Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)
A.IP B.TCP
C.FTP
D.NFS
E.UDP
F.ARP
400-151 dumps 
Correct:B E
5.Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask 255.255.224.0. The network will reserve subnets of all “0’s” and all “1’s”. What is the maximum number of available subnets?
Answer:
A.6
Correct:A
6.Select the link state routing protocols. (Choose two.)
A.RIP B.LAT
C.SNA
D.NLSP
E.RTMP
F.OSPF
400-151 pdf 
Correct:D F
7.What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?
A.PPP
B.ATM
C.X.25
D.SLIP E.ISDN
F.Frame Relay
Correct:B
8.Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)
A.NICs
B.routers
C.switches
D.gateways
E.repeaters
F.active hubs
400-151 vce 
Correct:A C
9.What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.THREE
Correct:A
10.What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
400-151 exam 
Correct:A
11.What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)
A.static routing B.count
to-infinity C.resource
intensive D.slow
convergence time E.lack
of industry support
Correct:B D
12.A network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. It reserves host addresses containing all “1’s”. How many host addresses are available for each subnet?
A.255
B.512
C.1023
D.2047
400-151 dumps  
Correct:D
13.What protocol provides access to the X.500 and is specifically targeted at simple management
and browser applications? Answer:
A.LDAP,(LIGHTWEIGHTDIRECTORYACCESSPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
14.How many characters may be in a single domain name label?
A.16
B.63

C.120
D.255
400-151 pdf 
Correct:B
15.Which IPX network addresses are reserved for special purposes? (Choose three.)
A.00000000
B.11111111
C.FFFFFFFF
D.FFFFFFFE
E.AAAAAAAA
F.AAAA0000
Correct:A C D
16.How many bits are in an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.32
400-151 vce 
Correct:A
17.What IPX routing protocol offers load balancing capabilities without reducing the physical size of the internetwork? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
18.What information is exchanged in an initial “hello” packet between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
A.hello interval
B.router priority number
C.full link state database
D.IP address and subnet mask
E.summary of the link state database
F.summary of the link state advertising database
400-151 exam 
Correct:A B D
19.A network administrator has been assigned a Class B network address of 150.225.0.0. The administrator then subnetted the network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. If the administrator is reserving node addresses of all “0’s” and all “1’s,” what is the range of available node addresses for the subnet 150.225.32.0?
A.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.44.254
B.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.47.254
C.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.48.254
D.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.50.254
E.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.52.254
F.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.44.254
G.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.46.254
H.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.48.254
I.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.52.254
J.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.54.254
Correct:A
20.How many IP addresses must be combined to create the IP supernet address 215.100.16.0/21?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
G.8
H.9
I.10
400-151 dumps 
Correct:G
21. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of .
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
Answer: B
22. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
400-151 pdf 
Answer: CD
23. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: AB
24. POSIX .
A. is the same as UNIX
B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard

400-151 vce Answer: D
25. A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
Answer: BC
26. Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn’t available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor’s external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor’s queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.

400-151 exam Answer: AB
27. Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
A. suspend / resume API’s
B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
Answer: CD
28. Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
B. Allow a task’s use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time

D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks’ priorities
400-151 dumps 
Answer: BC
29. The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new priority? (Choose two.)
A. The priority of the highest priority task
B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked
Answer: CD
30. What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces overhead
B. Increases overhead
C. May starve lower priority tasks
D. Avoids the need for priority queues
400-151 pdf 
Answer: BC
31. A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a .
A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application
B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
C. representative benchmark models a real application’s execution characteristics
D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the application
Answer: C
32. Network protocol models are described as layers that .
A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers (e.g., application)
B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers (e.g., hardware)
C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses

400-151 vce Answer: A
33. The primary requirement for an RTOS is to .
A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)
Answer: C
34. A strictly conforming POSIX application .
A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options
B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API’s for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance
400-151 exam 
Answer: C
35. Which statement accurately describes where a “mark” exists in the MDA model hierarchy?
A. as part of the PSM
B. as part of the PIM
C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM
Answer: C
36. In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM . (Choose TWO.)
A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language
400-151 dumps 
Answer: AC
37. What does the term “Platform independence” mean?
A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from some class of platforms.
C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application may be deployed.
Answer: B
38. What is an “implementation model”?
A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
D. A file that is executable on some computer system.
400-151 pdf 
Answer: C
39. What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose TWO.)
A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.
Answer: BD
40. A metamodel is a .
A. set of UML templates for drawing system models
B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems
400-151 vce 
Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits:
Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
400-101 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are
inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%. For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected). For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-
25%-25%. This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
Question No : 12. Following the installation of the Symposium Express 3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?
A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.
B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.
C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
400-101 vce Answer: C
Question No : 13. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client (04.00.037.00 to 04.02.011.04 inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?
A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.
B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.
C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package “CRTEmplates.msi”.
Answer: D
Question No : 14. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: “could not create database”. Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?
A. Key the database in by hand.

B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.
C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.
D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Question No : 15. A field engineer at a customer’s site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?
A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.
B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.
C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions and re-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.
D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.
Answer:A
Question No : 16. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?
A. Onto a remote directory of a network computer
B. Only onto an application server other than the original server
C. Only onto the same application server where the backup was created
D. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 17. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?
A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.

B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.
C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.
D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.
Answer: D
Question No : 18. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?
A. config.sys
B. lmhost table
C. command.com
D. autoexec.bat
400-101 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 19. The field engineer is preparing to use the “import configuration data” wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the “import configuration data” wizard?
A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.
C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
Answer:A
Question No : 20. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?
A. TCP/IP on the PBX switch
B. TCP/IP on the TAPI Server
C. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RAS

D. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server
400-101 vce Answer: C

Question No : 21. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?
A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.
B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.
D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.
Answer: C

 

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 8 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
  agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
300-170 exam Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 9 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A
QUESTION 10 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
300-170 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an organization’s integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant B.
Involvement in product design C.
Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
300-170 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier’s strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
production, and engineering.
Answer: C
QUESTION 14 If a supplier’s level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer’s company at the supplier’s plant

B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer’s company’s quality control department
D. Label “Quality of Material is Critical” on the purchase order
300-170 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 15 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76 centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3 standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20 centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
300-170 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following situations must be corrected FIRST to ensure successful information security governance within an organization?
A. The information security department has difficulty filling vacancies.
B. The chief information officer (CIO) approves security policy changes.
C. The information security oversight committee only meets quarterly.
D. The data center manager has final signoff on all security projects.
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A steering committee should be in place to approve all security projects. The fact that the data center manager has final signoff for all security projects indicates that a steering committee is not being used and that information security is relegated to a subordinate place in the organization. This would indicate a failure of information security governance. It is not inappropriate for an oversight or steering committee to meet quarterly. Similarly, it may be desirable to have the chief information officer (CIO) approve the security policy due to the size of the organization and frequency of updates. Difficulty in filling vacancies is not uncommon due to the shortage of good, qualified information security professionals.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following requirements would have the lowest level of priority in information security?
A. Technical
B. Regulatory
C. Privacy
D. Business
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security priorities may, at times, override technical specifications, which then must be rewritten to conform to minimum security standards. Regulatory and privacy requirements are government mandated and, therefore, not subject to override. The needs of the business should always take precedence in deciding information security priorities.
QUESTION 20
When an organization hires a new information security manager, which of the following goals should this individual pursue FIRST?
A. Develop a security architecture
B. Establish good communication with steering committee members
C. Assemble an experienced staff
D. Benchmark peer organizations
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New information security managers should seek to build rapport and establish lines of communication with senior management to enlist their support. Benchmarking peer organizations is beneficial to better understand industry best practices, but it is secondary to obtaining senior management support. Similarly, developing a security architecture and assembling an experienced staff are objectives that can be obtained later.
QUESTION 21
It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security architecture should always be properly aligned with business goals and objectives. Alignment with IT plans or industry and security best practices is secondary by comparison.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines

D. Standards
300-170 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.
QUESTION 23
Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks.
B. evaluations in trade publications.
C. use of new and emerging technologies.
D. benefits in comparison to their costs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most fundamental evaluation criterion for the appropriate selection of any security technology is its ability to reduce or eliminate business risks. Investments in security technologies should be based on their overall value in relation to their cost; the value can be demonstrated in terms of risk mitigation. This should take precedence over whether they use new or exotic technologies or how they are evaluated in trade publications.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes?
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Policies
D. Guidelines
300-170 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes.
QUESTION 25
The MOST important factor in planning for the long-term retention of electronically stored business records is to take into account potential changes in:
A. storage capacity and shelf life.
B. regulatory and legal requirements.
C. business strategy and direction.
D. application systems and media.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Long-term retention of business records may be severely impacted by changes in application systems and media. For example, data stored in nonstandard formats that can only be read and interpreted by previously decommissioned applications may be difficult, if not impossible, to recover. Business strategy and direction do not generally apply, nor do legal and regulatory requirements. Storage capacity and shelf life are important but secondary issues.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is characteristic of decentralized information security management across a geographically dispersed organization?
A. More uniformity in quality of service
B. Better adherence to policies
C. Better alignment to business unit needs
D. More savings in total operating costs
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Decentralization of information security management generally results in better alignment to business unit needs. It is generally more expensive to administer due to the lack of economies of scale. Uniformity in quality of service tends to vary from unit to unit.
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position to sponsor the design and implementation of a new security infrastructure in a large global enterprise?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief operating officer (COO)
C. Chief privacy officer (CPO)
D. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The chief operating officer (COO) is most knowledgeable of business operations and objectives. The chief privacy officer (CPO) and the chief legal counsel (CLC) may not have the knowledge of the day- to-day business operations to ensure proper guidance, although they have the same influence within the organization as the COO. Although the chief security officer (CSO) is knowledgeable of what is needed, the sponsor for this task should be someone with far-reaching influence across the organization.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following would be the MOST important goal of an information security governance program?
A. Review of internal control mechanisms
B. Effective involvement in business decision making
C. Total elimination of risk factors
D. Ensuring trust in data
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The development of trust in the integrity of information among stakeholders should be the primary goal of
  information security governance. Review of internal control mechanisms relates more to auditing, while the total elimination of risk factors is not practical or possible. Proactive involvement in business decision making implies that security needs dictate business needs when, in fact, just the opposite is true. Involvement in decision making is important only to ensure business data integrity so that data can be trusted.
QUESTION 29
Relationships among security technologies are BEST defined through which of the following?
A. Security metrics
B. Network topology
C. Security architecture
D. Process improvement models
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security architecture explains the use and relationships of security mechanisms. Security metrics measure improvement within the security practice but do not explain the use and relationships of security technologies. Process improvement models and network topology diagrams also do not describe the use and relationships of these technologies.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 25
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input
to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have
studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants
you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and
impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve

300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project
execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives,
which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management
Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which
of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 32
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his
organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to
help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees
that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is
most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.

B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 34
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
QUESTION 35
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on
several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many
risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high
risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there
any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to
Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are
small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk
events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree
Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine
overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response
that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to
cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
That fact that minor changes in customer demand can become exaggerated as that demand is
communicated up that supply chain is referred to as:
A. embellished effect
B. amplification effect
C. bullwhip effect
D. inflation effect
300-360 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
According to the supply management, one of the most useful ways to develop
Is to begin with an inventory report listing all items in descending order of
dollar spent.
A. Top-down classification
B. Slope classification
C. Gradient classification
D. ABC classification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
A physical stock checking system in which the inventory is divided into groups that are
physically counted at predetermined intervals is called:
A. Continuous inventory
B. Cycle counting
C. Reconciliation
D. None of the above
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The inventory reporting measures format is typically presented in which of the following way?
A. weeks of supply
B. average aggregate inventory
C. inventory turnover
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is NOT the component used to calculate the inventory holding costs?
A. Released rates
B. Invested funds
C. Shrinkage
D. Obsolescence
300-360 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
With what an organization’s inventory values are kept continuously in line with its actual
inventory on hand?
A. Services inventory control system
B. Perpetual inventory control system
C. Periodic inventory control system
D. Temporary inventory control system
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
A term used to describe a ‘one piece flow’ business strategy that allows an organization to
establish a continuous sequencing of product, within a flow process is known as:
A. Flow manufacturing
B. Inventory scheduling
C. Just-in-time scheduling
D. Online scheduling
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
A progressive approach to control inventory is called:

A. Materials inventory
B. Delays in production approach
C. Supplier-managed inventory
D. Depleted control approach
Answer: C
QUESTION: 47
The term most often used to refer to the role of logistics in product returns, source reduction,
recycling, materials substitution, reuse of materials, waster disposal, and refurbishing, repair an
remanufacturing is known as:
A. Multichannel logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Rearrange Materials logistics
D. Switch State art logistics
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
An intermediary who brings the buyer and the seller together is the:
A. Dealer
B. their-party specialist
C. public surplus
D. Broker
Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
Applying the value of existing equipment against the purchase of new is referred to as:
A. Bidding

B. Trade-in
C. Action
D. Equipment sales
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
A lean manufacturing technique in which the transformation of materials is traced from
beginning to end to determine if there is waste in the process is called:
A. Value stream mapping
B. State map technique
C. Fair market value mapping
D. Customized stream mapping
Answer: A
QUESTION: 51
New product ideas fall into following categories except:
A. Breakthrough ideas
B. Incremental ideas
C. Derivative ideas
D. Production ideas
300-360 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
A tool used to develop the technical specifications necessary to meet customer requirements is
called:
A. Quality function deployment
B. Quality forecast
C. Quality Matrix
D. House of Quality

Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
happens when one or more existing competitors realize an opportunity to improve
their position or when they are responding to the pressure from other competitors.
A. Substitute bargaining
B. Antagonism
C. Rivalry
D. Business Conflict
300-360 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 54
A standard of point of reference used in measuring or judging an organization’s performance
according to selected criteria is called:
A. Performance assessment
B. Benchmarking
C. Process revelation
D. None of the above
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55
Which of the following essentially translate an organization’s business plan into an operation
plan?
A. Requirement plan
B. Staffing plan
C. Capital investment plan
D. Services resources

Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The amount of reserve capacity that a firm maintains to handle sudden increases in demand or
temporary losses of production capacity is called:
A. Capacity cushion
B. Capacity capability
C. Capacity staffing
D. Capacity board
Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
The process which begins by understanding the product such as its value, its physical
characteristics such as length, height, width, and weight and its fragility is called:
A. Packaging optimization
B. Product optimization
C. Process Throughput
D. Flood flow gain
300-360 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 58
A practice that involves purchasing professional in the new product or service development
process from its inception is called:
A. Service level professionalism
B. Statement of work flow
C. Early purchasing Improvement
D. Initializing consent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
What is used to obtain general information about products, services or suppliers and is
information request, not binding on either the supplier or the purchaser?
A. Procurement document
B. Solicitation document
C. Target market
D. Qualified product description
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
What involves taking out an investment that will specifically reduce or cancel out the risk in
another investment?
A. Operational strategy
B. Situational factor
C. Hedging strategy
D. Optimization strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
Two back-to-back quarters of negative gross domestic product growth is referred to as:
A. Recession
B. Hunch
C. Nose-dive
D. Obsolescence
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 6
Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online. Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Your client wants to use Google AdWords’ ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video ad for your customer?
A. You’ll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You’ll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
400-351 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her. How can the SEO firm now manage Beth’s account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth’s account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth’s account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth’s account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
400-351 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It’s calculated using a variety of factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user’s search query.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
400-351 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You’re serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client, is new to Web-based business sales and he’s concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his ad for a short period of time. What’s the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best explanation of Google’s double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar businesses.
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network. How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network – once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she’s hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery. She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad – rather than advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
400-351 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Linda has a discount clothing store and she’d like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred’s ad to be displayed?
A. Car that’s been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
Your client wants to be ranked number one in Google search listings on the keyword golf. How can Google AdWords helps this goal?
A. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if the client enrolls in the Google Organic Search program and the GoogleAdWords program.
B. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if their ad uses the same keywords on the client’s Website.
C. Participation in Google AdWords will not help the client’s organic search results.
D. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
What tool can you use with Google AdWords to determine how much time customers spend on your site after they click your ad?
A. Google Analytics
B. Google Pack
C. Google Translate
D. Google Trends for Websites
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Wendy has created a new Google AdWords account and she has selected her time zone as EST. Wendy later realizes that she should have selected the time zone as PST. How can Wendy change the time zone in her Google AdWords account?
A. Wendy can change the time zone as Administrative account in the Account Settings.
B. Wendy can’t change the time zone without calling the Google AdWords support center.
C. Shecannot. Once the time zone is set, it cannot be changed.
D. Wendy can change the time zone as an Administrative account through Options/Settings.
Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but
is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the
login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description

D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network
administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be
done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip
address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While
debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces
Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

300-115 dumps

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration
from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the
existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to
complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?

300-115 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is
configured with EtherChannel mode active.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
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Q&As: 112

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1. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 exam Answer: BCDEFG
2. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C
3. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 dumps Answer: EFG
4. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400
product families?
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
5. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all
request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be
saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http

C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
600-510 pdf Answer: D
6. A UDP application is considered down if the server returns:
A. No packet
B. A garbage packet
C. An UDP probe packet
D. An ICMP unreachable packet
Answer: D
7. An active health check is done:
A. At each user request
B. According to the configured time values
C. When the Reassign-Threshold is exceeded
D. When there is a status change from the server
600-510 vce Answer: B
8. An HTTP health check can return:
A. A keepalive
B. Status code
C. Content verification
D. A value to increment the Reassign-Threshold
Answer: BC
9. Which of the following Health Check types are performed at Layer 7?
A. Arp Request
B. TCP C.
HTTP D.
IMAP4
E. UDP F.
LDAP G.
MMS H.
RSTP
600-510 exam Answer: CDFG
10. How many simultaneous levels of health checks can be configured on the ServerIron to health check
the same real server
A. Layer 3, Layer4

B. Layer4, Layer7
C. Layer3, Layer4, Layer7, content match
D. Layer 4, Layer7, content match
Answer: B
11. What will be the corresponding Virtual MAC Address belonging to a configured VIP 175.30.15.10
(AF:1E:0F:0A)
A. VMACs have to be manually configured
B. AF:1E:0F:0A:FF:FF
C. 02:0C:DB:1E:0F:0A
D. 02:0C:AF:1E:0F:0A
600-510 dumps Answer: C
12. What must be done before a Health-Check Policy will take effect?
A. The Health-Check Policy must be bound to the VIP
B. The Health-Check Policy intervals and reset must be define
C. The Health-Check Policy must be attached to an application port on a real server
D. The Health-Check Policy must be configured to use 3-way handshaking
Answer: C
13. A Matching List can contain:
A. Log
B. URL
C. Down simple D.
Status codes E.
Up Compound
600-510 pdf Answer: ACE
14. When health checking is enabled, a server response time consists of the combination of its response
to client requests and its response to Layer 4 or Layer 7 health checks from the ServerIron.
A. True B.
False
Answer: B
15. When using a scripted health check, the default health check is disabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
16. A scripted health check can only contain searches for:

A. ASCII content
B. Status codes
C. Status codes and ASCII content
D. Status codes, ASCII content and keepalives
Answer: C
17. Port profiles are used to define:
A. Port types
B. Status of ports
C. Well known ports
D. HTTP health checks
600-510 vce Answer: A
18. The Foundry ServerIron can perform Layer 7 health checks on the following TCP applications (select
all that applies)?
A. FTP (port 21)
B. POP3 (port 110)
C. LDAP (port 389)
D. SNMP
Answer: ABC
19. Health checks to port 443 can be:
A. Secure
B. Simple
C. Simple and Secure
D. Simple, Secure and Boolean
600-510 exam Answer: AB
20. A Port Profile is a set of attributes that defines a TCP/UDP port. Which of the following are valid Port
Profile Attributes?
A. l4-healthck
B. Keepalive interval and retries
C. TCP or UDP age
D. Keepalive state
Answer: BCD
21.Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads – one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups – one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns – one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it’s the most common of the four languages she’s targeting.
600-510 dumps Answer: C
22.You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)
Answer: C
23.In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
600-510 pdf Answer: D
24.Holly is the webmaster for her company’s website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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    1.1 Gather requirements
    1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements
    1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities
    1.2.a Apply different API models
    1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
    1.2.b [i] Controller-based
    1.2.b [ii] Device-centric API (distributed)
    1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)
    1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies
    1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications
    1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work
    1.5 Document application/networking touch points
    1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] A Brief Study Guide On The Best Cisco 200-155 Dumps DCICT Questions Answers Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 71
What term is assigned to the barriers that women and minorities may face when trying to advance to senior levels of an organization?
A. Societal barrier
B. Internal structure barrier
C. Governmental barrier
D. Glass ceiling
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 72
Your organization has employed a temporary worker for a position in your company. During employment the individual has been called to military duty. Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 are you obligated to reinstate the individual upon his return from duty?
A. No, because temporary employees do not have reinstatement rights.
B. No, because once an employee leaves, you are not obligated to reinstate them.
C. Yes, if they have been working as a temporary employee for more than 90 days.
D. Yes, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 requires it.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 73
Mark is a contractor for the CleanSweep Chimney Company. When the CleanSweep Chimney Company has work that they can’t manage they’ll send Mark to the customer site to quote on the work based on their standardized fees and complete the work on their behalf. The company will pay Mark for his time. Mark, however, often tells the home owners what the CleanSweep Chimney Company will charge, but he can personally do the job for less than the CleanSweep Chimney Company. What is this an example of?
A. Bait and switch
B. Breach of duty of loyalty
C. Breach of duty of diligence
D. Breach of duty of obedience
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 74
What is the most effective method to use when an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group?
A. An employee survey
B. A skip-level interview
C. An employee focus group
D. A brown-bag lunch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A skip-level interview provides an opportunity for a manager’s manager to obtain insight into the goals and satisfaction of employees in the work group. An employee survey (A) is best used to gather information about various issues that can be collated and summarized. A focus group (B) can be used to involve employees in the decision-making process. A brown-bag lunch (D) is an effective way for senior managers to meet with small groups of employees to answer questions about the company goals and mission and to obtain feedback about operations. See Chapter 7 for more information.
QUESTION 75
If a dress-code policy prohibits the use of ethnic clothing, but an employee requests an accommodation based on their religious preference, how should the employer respond?
A. Modify the dress code unless doing so would create an undue hardship.
B. Refuse the accommodation based on business necessity.
C. Allow the employee to dress in ethnic clothing with sufficient advance notice.
D. Only allow the clothing on casual dress days, when other employees are also allowed to dress outside of policy guidelines.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.A dress-code policy is generally an accepted employer practice, provided it applies to all employees or employees in certain job categories. There are exceptions, however, based on ethnicity or religious practices. As with any other accommodation, an employer should actively seek a solution that does not result in undue hardship. See
QUESTION 76
Your organization is looking for methods to improve communication between the management and the employees within the company. Which one of the following methods is best described as a small but representative sampling of employees – led in a conversation by a neutral moderator about an identified topic?
A. Pilot group
B. Focus group

C. Workshop
D. Brainstorming session
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A focus group is often used to find an employee-driven solution to a problem. Focus groups typically, but not always, include sampling of employees from across the organization. Focus groups should be led by neutral moderators, rather than members of the management. What are focus groups? Focus groups are directed conversations for gathering ideas, opinions about a product, service, problem, or opportunity.
References:
QUESTION 77
What is the difference between organizational culture and organizational climate?
A. There is no difference; the terms may be used interchangeably.
B. Organizational culture discusses the learning of the organization. Organizational climate discusses how well the learning happens.
C. Organizational culture defines the values of the company. Organizational climate defines the implementation of the values.
D. Organization climate is the sense of hostility. Organization culture is the sense of hospitality.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 78
All of the following reasons for termination of an employee are examples of wrongful termination except for which one?
A. Violation of company policy
B. Being a member of a protected class
C. Whistleblower
D. Filing a worker’s compensation claim
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 79
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
B. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
C. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a lawsuit
  against the organization.
D. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral third party rather than through a lawsuit.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 52
Patrick visits his teenage daughter’s social media page and discovers several offensive posts about one of her classmates. After speaking with his daughter, Patrick learns that several other girls in her class are upset with the classmate and have been posting, texting and e-mailing others about the girl. What is the best way for Patrick to help his daughter understand cyberbullying?
A. He should advise his daughter to ignore the posts, texts and c-mails.
B. He should explain to his daughter that she is participating in the bullying by accepting others’ posts, texts and c-mails.
C. He should explain to his daughter that the Internet embraces freedom of speech, and anyone is allowed to write anything.
D. He should advise his daughter to delete all the posts, texts and c-mails she has received, as well as any new ones that appear.
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 53
When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. use the images without purchasing a license.
D. assume copyright of the images.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 54
Which type of application allows you to edit and validate your source code and preview your Web pages in multiple browsers?
A. GUI HTML editor
B. HTML text editor
C. Word processor
D. Compiler
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 55
Evonka is listening to music from an online music provider (such as Pandora or Jango). She builds a list of music preferences, including favorite songs. The music service then suggests additional songs she might enjoy. The music
provider is an example of a cloud-computing application that uses a technology for collaborative filtering, which helps define the list of songs available to listeners. Which term describes this technology?
A. Bit-torrent r
B. Crowdsourcing
C. Grid computing
D. Software as a Service
Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The App-A-Day company offers software applications for various topics. When a customer purchases a desired application from the App-A-Day online store, he is directed to a page where he can download the application directly. When the customer is redirected and begins downloading the application, which specific standard protocol is most likely transferring the application?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SMTP

210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
Which of the following is a disadvantage of implementing a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy in a company?
A. Increased cost for licensing mobile applications
B. Configuring the corporate e-mail server to work with mobile devices
C. Inability to control access to company data if the device is stolen or lost
D. Providing training for employees on how to use mobile devices with company applications
Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
When using cloud-based services to host company data, a company’s disaster recovery plan should include strategies for:
A. creating redundancy and ensuring there is an exclusive contract with the cloud service provider.
B. distributing data and software services across multiple cloud service providers.
C. creating redundancy and using multiple cloud service providers.
D. using a single well-established cloud service provider.
210-260 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
Marsha’s boss directed her to create a mobile version of the company’s Web site. To ensure her mobile site is optimized, Marsha eliminates banners and advertisements. What other recommendations should Marsha follow?
A. Use images instead of video on the Web site.
B. Use white space to give the site an uncluttered look.
C. Use Flash content to replace lengthy text descriptions.
D. Create several Web sites, each tailored to a specific mobile platform.

210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
Which set of standards developed by the W3C Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) project provides a universal set of standards promoting accessibility for all Web users, including those with disabilities?
A. Web Content Accessibility Guidelines
B. User Agent Accessibility Guidelines
C. W3C Authoring Tool Accessibility Guidelines
D. Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act
Answer: A
QUESTION: 61
You have just checked the balance in your bank account by logging into your bank’s Web site. Which protocol was most likely used for the transmission of your information?
A. IMAPS
B. HTTPS
C. POP3
D. FTPS
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 62
You can use the HTML <input>, <select> and <text area> tags to create form fields in a Web page by placing them between the <form> /form> container tags. Which attribute is used with the <input> element to designate the fields that will appear in the form?
A. The type attribute B.
The name attribute C.
The value attribute D.
The action attribute

Answer: A
QUESTION: 63
Which term describes the practice of actively collecting wireless networking data from companies and individuals?
A. War driving
B. Spear phishing
C. Dictionary attack
D. Social engineering
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 64
Your Web browser is currently open and displaying a popular sports site. You decide that you want to browse to the CIW site without closing the browser. What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?
A. By performing a search on your computer for the term “CIW”
B. By performing a search within the site currently displayed in your Web browser
C. By typing in the FTP address (ftp.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
D. By typing the CIW site’s URL (www.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
Answer: D
QUESTION: 65
What should be your first step when troubleshooting a network connection that uses a cable modem?
A. Ping the proxy server.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping local devices using their DNS names.
D. Ping local devices using their IP addresses.

210-260 vce Answer: D

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