Win The CCNP 350-401 Exam With The Latest 350-401 ENCOR Dumps

Latest 350-401 exam questions

To get better career opportunities and higher salaries in the enterprise networking field, you must pass the CCNP 350-401 ENCOR exam. How do I win exams 350-401? Use the latest 350-401 ENCOR dumps.

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Take the test: Latest 350-401 ENCOR dumps exam questions online

Question 1:

Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

A. Policing

B. Marking

C. Queueing

D. Classification

Correct Answer: A

Traffic Policing

In general, traffic policing allows you to control the maximum rate of traffic sent or received on an interface and to partition a network into multiple priority levels or classes of service (CoS).

Question 2:

What are the two benefits of YANG? (Choose two)

A. it collects statistical constraint analysis information

B. In enforces the use of specific encoding format for NETCONF

C. in enforces configuration semantics

D. it enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf-list

E. it enforces configuration constraints

Correct Answer: BE

Question 3:

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of a new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

A. Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 5000

B. Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 5000

C. Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 5000

D. Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 5000

Correct Answer: C

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the

responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds time stamps to the sent

packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or other dedicated probe testing.


UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation (jitter), corruption, misordering and packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires IP SLA responder. The command to enable UDP Jitter Operation is “ip sla

responder udp-echo {destination-ip-address} [destination-port]

Question 4:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults

B. password hash

C. adding a timestamp in requests

D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 encor exam questions 5

What are the two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of are translated to or .2. respectively.

B. A packet that is sent to from is translated to on R1.

C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.

D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.

E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside addresses.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 encor exam questions 6

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A. interface Tunnel1 ip address tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination

B. interface Tunnel1 ip address tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination

C. interface Tunnel1 ip address tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination

D. interface Tunnel1 ip address tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A new multicast server is being added to an existing PIM Sparse mode network. Which device in this network must the new server register with before its multicast traffic can be dispersed throughout the network?

A. IGMP Querier

B. Local PIM router

C. Local IGMP switch

D. Rendezvous Point (RP)

Correct Answer: D

reference: ip_multicast_optimization__optimizing_pim_sparse_mode_in_a_large_ip_multicast_deployment.html

Question 8:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?



C. map resolver

D. map server

Correct Answer: B

Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.


Question 9:

Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

A. wireless client

B. wireless LAN controller

C. access point

D. WCS location server

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which feature is supported by ElGRP but is not supported by OSPF?

A. route summarization

B. equal-cost load balancing

C. unequal-cost load balancing

D. route filtering

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?

A. The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded

B. The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded.

C. The network device is not configured to use NTP

D. The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging.

Correct Answer: C

“Network device is not configured to use NTP” is the only answer which may justify the fact that the system clock has not been set and thus date and time are preceded by an asterisk (*),

Question 12:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

What does the destination MAC on the outer MAC header identify in a VXLAN packet?

A. the emote spine

B. the next hop

C. the leaf switch

D. the remote switch

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:


Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Select and Place:

350-401 encor exam questions 14

Correct Answer:

350-401 encor exam questions 14-2

Question 15:

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)

A. core switch

B. vBond controller

C. edge node

D. access switch

E. border node

Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:


Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.


Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.


Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.


Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.

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    Question 1:

    Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

    A. shaping

    B. policing

    C. CBWFQ

    D. LLQ

    Correct Answer: B

    Question 2:

    Which field within the access request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

    A. authorized services

    B. authenticator

    C. username

    D. password

    Correct Answer: D

    Question 3:

    Drag and Drop

    Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

    Select and Place:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 3

    Correct Answer:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 3-2

    This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet

    From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).

    We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is

    So the first usable host should be and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

    Let \’s taking another example with subnet -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is ->

    The first usable host is It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or then reduce 1 bit -> is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is

    Question 4:

    Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?





    Correct Answer: B

    This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:

    1. Class A private IP address ranges from to

    2. Class B private IP address ranges from to

    3. Class C private IP address ranges from to

    Only network belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

    Question 5:

    How does authentication differ from authorization?

    A. Authentication is used to verify a person\’s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

    B. Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network.

    C. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

    D. Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access.

    Correct Answer: C

    Question 6:

    Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

    A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

    B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

    C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

    D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

    E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

    F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

    Correct Answer: BDE

    Question 7:

    Which two statements are true about the command ip route (Choose two.)

    A. It establishes a static route to the network.

    B. It establishes a static route to the network.

    C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the network.

    D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address

    E. It uses the default administrative distance.

    F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

    Correct Answer: AE

    Question 8:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 8

    Which command provides this output?

    A. show ip route B. show cdp neighbor

    C. show ip interface

    D. show interface

    Correct Answer: B

    Question 9:

    Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

    A. Ansible

    B. Python

    C. Puppet

    D. Chef

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 10:

    Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?

    A. {“key”: “value”}

    B. [“key”, “value”]

    C. {“key”, “value”}

    D. (“key”: “value”)

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 11:

    Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

    A. WPA2 + AES

    B. WPA + AES

    C. WEP

    D. WPA + TKIP

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 12:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 12

    Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 12-2

    A. Option A

    B. Option B

    C. Option C

    D. Option D

    Correct Answer: B

    ipv6 unicast-routing statement included (IPv6 is enabled on the router). Compared to the exhibit, Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 have correct configurations. The route to subnet 2001:db8:4::/64 points to R18\’s Fa1/0 (correct next-hop).

    Question 13:


    Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

    Select and Place:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 13

    Correct Answer:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 13-2

    Question 14:

    Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 14

    A. Set PMF to Required.

    B. Enable MAC Filtering.

    C. Enable WPA Policy.

    D. Set Fast Transition to Enabled

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 15:

    Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 15

    A. Layer 2 switch

    B. Router

    C. Load balancer

    D. firewall

    Correct Answer: B

    PC–A and PC-B are not in the same network. Switches send traffic in layer 2 and within the same VLA while routers route traffic to different subnets and at layer 3.

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    Cisco 500-240 Online Q&A


    Match each device series on the left with its placement in an MBH network on the right. (Not all options will be used).


    What command is used to insert the core node area border router into the data path?

    A. update-source loopback0
    B. set path-selection backup 1 install
    C. next-hop-self
    D. insert-data-path

    Correct Answer: C


    Which technology uses two or three antennas to receive (input) the signal and two or three radios to transmit (output),
    plus special signal processing to improve range, reliability, and throughput.

    A. HSPA
    B. CDMA
    C. LTE
    D. MIMO

    Correct Answer: D


    Which three clock types can an ASR920 router be configured as? (Choose three.)

    A. Boundary clock
    B. Clock
    C. Ordinary clock
    D. Regular clock
    E. Transparent clock
    F. Ordinary, Regular

    Correct Answer: ACE


    SyncE clocking is provided at what OSI layer?

    A. Layer 3
    B. Layer 2 and 3
    C. Layer 1
    D. Layer 2

    Correct Answer: C


    What are the three purposes of partitioning the backhaul network into independent IGP domains? (Choose three.)

    A. to not enhance stability
    B. to reduce the size of the routing and forwarding tables on individual routers
    C. to ensure that reachability is not possible between domains
    D. to not ensure stability
    E. faster convergence
    F. to enhance stability

    Correct Answer: BEF


    What can PTP be used to synchronize?

    A. Time, frequency, phase
    B. Rate
    C. Phase, time
    D. Frequency

    Correct Answer: A


    High availability at the transport network layer is provided through the combination of what three technologies? (Choose three.)

    A. Alternate Route
    B. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
    C. BGP
    D. HSRP
    E. BFD
    F. BGP Core and Edge Fast Reroute and Edge protection

    Correct Answer: ABF


    What does virtualization of the core route reflectors do?

    A. limit the availability
    B. does not enhance resiliency
    C. enhance resiliency or availability
    D. adds complexity

    Correct Answer: C


    Which type of backhaul network does the Cisco Unified RAN Backhaul use?

    A. SONET
    B. ATM
    C. IP MPLS
    D. TDM

    Correct Answer: C


    When configuring SAToP what must the framing be configured as?

    A. Framed
    B. Native
    C. Structured
    D. Unframed

    Correct Answer: B


    Which technology is a mechanism that emulates point-to-point connection over a packet-switched network?

    A. LFA FRR
    B. SyncE
    C. PWE3
    D. TDM

    Correct Answer: C


    Which two options configures an ASR920 router as a hybrid clock? (Choose two.)

    A. ptp clock boundary domain 0
    B. ptp clock boundary domain 0 hybrid
    C. ptp clock ordinary domain 0 hybrid
    D. ptp clock ordinary domain 0
    E. ptp clock

    Correct Answer: BC


    What type of PW is the CESoPSN?

    A. Structured and unstructured
    B. Unstructured
    C. Unframed
    D. Structured

    Correct Answer: D



    What is the preferred method for frequency synchronization in a Unified MPLS for IP MBH Communication?

    A. SyncE/IEEE 1588
    B. Local devices Clocking Sync
    C. IP MBH Communication doesn\\’t require Synchronization
    D. NTP

    Correct Answer: A

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    A developer has created a deployment that should launch a pod to run their database service. The pod should launch
    with a metadata name of “Cisco-DB,” and the developer has added it to the “Cisco” namespace in their deployment.
    Which Kubernetes command confirms that the service is running and usable?
    A. kubectl -n Cisco get services | grep “Cisco-DB”
    B. kubectl -n Cisco get pods | grep “Cisco-DB”
    C. kubectl get pods | grep “Cisco-DB”
    D. kubectl -n Cisco get service | grep “Cisco-DB”
    Correct Answer: C

    The E-commerce application is being monitored using AppDynamics. AppDynamics has noticed that the application
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    Where in the interface does AppDynamics bring this to your attention?
    A. Potential Issues section of an individual transaction
    B. Transaction Score graph of a business transaction
    C. Code Deadlock section of the Event List
    D. Slow Calls and Errors tab of the application
    Correct Answer: A

    Which step must be taken to enable centralized logging in a Kubernetes environment?
    A. No steps need to be taken. The master node automatically aggregates logs from all worker nodes and stores them
    on the specified persistent volume.
    B. Create a CustomResourceDefinition in each deployment that specifies the IP or names the log collector.
    C. Deploy a sidecar node that aggregates logs from the entire cluster.
    D. Create a DaemonSet that deploys a container with a logging agent on every node in the cluster.
    Correct Answer: C

    Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
    When creating multiple containers, in order to allow communication with each other, you must create a __________ of
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    Correct Answer: pod, volume

    What is as responsibility for teams running private cloud servers that is less of a concern when running in the public
    A. cost
    B. metrics and monitoring
    C. hardware maintenance
    D. credentials management
    Correct Answer: D

    A DevOps engineer has built a new container and must open port 8080 for intercontainer communication. Which
    command must be added in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
    A. EXPOSE 8080
    C. PORT 8080
    D. OPEN PORT 8080
    Correct Answer: A

    ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if
    a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?
    A. The default path is not used.
    B. The volume is not created.
    C. The volume is created.
    D. The volume is created with errors.
    Correct Answer: A


    300-910 exam questions-q8

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?
    A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.
    B. The requests module is not installed.
    C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.
    D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.
    Correct Answer: B

    Fill in the blanks to complete the line of Python code that sends a message to a Webex Teams room or person.

    300-910 exam questions-q9

    Correct Answer: post, messages

    When DevOps practices are integrated into an existing organization, which two characteristics are positive indicators of
    DevOps maturity? (Choose two.)
    A. mean time between success
    B. mean time to recover
    C. cone testing
    D. change lead time
    E. age of codebase
    Correct Answer: BD

    A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web-server and it must run as an executable. Which command must
    be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?
    B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]
    C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]
    D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}
    Correct Answer: B

    A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which
    the configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?
    A. Jenkins
    B. Genie CLI
    C. Travis CI
    D. Python YAML data libraries
    Correct Answer: A

    Which method is a safe way to provide a username/password combination to an application running as a service in a
    Docker container?
    A. encode the value with base64 in a secure DNS CTEXT entry
    B. as an environment variable in the Dockerfile
    C. Docker environment variable
    D. Docker secrets
    Correct Answer: D

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    C. Interface mapping and flow control
    D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding
    810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
    FC-1 Layer: It defines how data is encoded prior to transmission and decoded upon receipt. At the transmitter node, an 8-bit character is encoded into a 10-bit transmission character. This character is then transmitted to the receiver node. At the receiver node, the 10-bit character is passed to the FC-1 layer,  which decodes the 10-bit character into the original 8-bit character. FC links with speed 10 Gbps and above use 64-bit to 66-bit encoding algorithm. This layer also defines the transmission words such as FC frame delimiters, which identify the start and end of a frame and primitive signals that indicate events at a transmitting port. In addition to these, the FC-1 layer performs link initialization and error recovery.
    What is a security implementation in NAS environments?
    A. Kerberos
    B. Port binding
    C. S_ID Lockdown
    D. FC-SP
    Correct Answer: A
    Security Implementation in NAS
    NAS is open to multiple exploits, including viruses, worms, unauthorized access, snooping, and data tampering. Various security mechanisms are implemented in NAS to secure data and the storage networking infrastructure. Permissions and ACLs form the first level of protection to NAS resources by restricting accessibility and sharing. These permissions are deployed over and above the default behaviors and attributes associated with files and folders. In addition, various other authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as Kerberos and directory services, are implemented to verify the identity of network users and define their privileges. Similarly, firewalls protect the storage infrastructure from unauthorized access and malicious attacks.
    In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning?
    A. Restricts RSCN traffic
    B. Isolates fabric services
    C. Enables online volume expansion
    D. Provides non-disruptive data migration
    810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
    Zoning is an FC switch function that enables node ports within the fabric to be logically segmented into groups and communicate with each other within the group. Whenever a change takes place in the name server database, the fabric controller sends a Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to all the nodes impacted by the change. If zoning is not configured, the fabric controller sends an RSCN to all the nodes in the fabric. Involving the nodes that are not impacted by the change results in increased fabric-management traffic. For a large fabric, the amount of FC traffic generated due to this process can be significant and might impact the host-to-storage data traffic. Zoning helps to limit the number of RSCNs in a fabric. In the presence of zoning, a fabric sends the RSCN to only those nodes in a zone where the change has occurred.
    What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?
    A. 1

    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 6
    Correct Answer: C
    Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centers to access a single copy of data?
    A. VPLEX
    B. VMAX
    C. VNX
    D. Vblock
    810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
    EMC VPLEX is the next-generation solution for block-level virtualization and data mobility both within and across datacenters. The VPLEX appliance resides between the servers and heterogeneous storage devices. It forms a pool of distributed block storage resources and enables creating virtual storage volumes from the pool. These virtual volumes are then allocated to the servers. The virtual-to-physical storage mapping remains hidden to the servers. VPLEX provides nondisruptive data mobility among physical storage devices to balance the application workload and to enable both local and remote data access. The mapping of virtual volumes to physical volumes can be changed dynamically by the administrator. VPLEX uses a unique clustering architecture and distributed cache coherency that enable multiple hosts located across two locations to access a single copy of data. VPLEX also provides the capability to mirror
      data of a virtual volume both within and across locations. This enables hosts at different data centers to access cache-coherent copies of the same virtual volume. To avoid application downtime due to outage at a data center, the workload can be moved quickly to another data center. Applications continue accessing the same virtual volume and remain uninterrupted by the data mobility. The VPLEX family consists of three products: VPLEX Local, VPLEX Metro, and VPLEX Geo. EMC VPLEX Local delivers local federation, which provides simplified management and nondisruptive data mobility across heterogeneous arrays within a data center. EMC VPLEX Metro delivers distributed federation, which provides data access and mobility between two VPEX clusters within synchronous distances that support round-trip latency up to 5 ms. EMC VPLEX Geo delivers data access and mobility between two VPLEX clusters within asynchronous distances (that support round-trip latency up to 50 ms).
    Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to a secondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system?
    A. MirrorView
    B. SnapView
    C. RepliStor
    D. SRDF
    Correct Answer: A
    EMC MirrorView
    The MirrorView software enables EMC VNX storage arraybased remote replication. It replicates the contents of a primary volume to a secondary volume that resides on a different VNX storage system. The MirrorView family consists of MirrorView/Synchronous (MirrorView/S) and MirrorView/Asynchronous (MirrorView/A) solutions. MirrorView/S is a synchronous product that mirrors data between local and remote storage systems. MirrorView/A is an asynchronous product that offers extended distance replication based on periodic incremental update model. It periodically updates the remote copy of the data with all the changes that occurred on the primary copy since the last update.
    A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings. Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
    A. Incremental
    B. Cumulative
    C. Full
    D. Differential
    810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
    Backup Granularity

    Backup granularity depends on business needs and the required RTO/RPO. Based on the granularity, backups can be categorized as full, incremental, and cumulative (or differential). Most organizations use a combination of these three backup types to meet their backup and recovery requirements. Figure on the slide depicts the different backup granularity levels. Full backup is a backup of the complete data on the production volumes. A full backup copy is created by copying the data in the production volumes to a backup storage device. It provides a faster recovery but requires more storage space and also takes more time to back up. Incremental backup copies the data that has changed since the last full or incremental backup, whichever has occurred more recently. This is much faster than a full backup (because the volume of data backed up is restricted to the changed data only) but takes longer to restore . Cumulative backup copies the data that has changed since the last full backup. This method takes longer than an incremental backup but is faster to restore. Another way to implement full backup is synthetic (or constructed) backup. This method is used when the production volume resources cannot be exclusively reserved for a backup process for extended periods to perform a full backup. It is usually created from the most recent full backup and all the incremental backups performed after that full backup. This backup is called synthetic because the backup is not created directly from production data. A synthetic full backup enables a full backup copy to be created offline without disrupting the I/O operation on the production volume. This also frees up network resources from the backup process, making them available for other production uses.
    What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
    A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
    B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
    C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
    D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
    Correct Answer: A
    NAS Implementation – Scale-out NAS
    The scale-out NAS implementation pools multiple nodes together in a cluster. A node may consist of either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operation as a single entity.
      A scale-out NAS provides the capability to scale its resources by simply adding nodes to a clustered NAS architecture. The cluster works as a single NAS device and is managed centrally. Nodes can be added to the cluster, when more performance or more capacity is needed, without causing any downtime. Scale-out NAS provides the flexibility to use many nodes of moderate performance and availability characteristics to produce a total system that has better aggregate performance and availability. It also provides ease of use,
    low cost, and theoretically unlimited scalability. Scale-out NAS creates a single file system that runs on all nodes in the cluster. All information is shared among nodes, so the entire file system is accessible by clients connecting to any node in the cluster. Scale-out NAS stripes data across all nodes in a cluster along with mirror or parity protection. As data is sent from clients to the cluster, the data is divided and allocated to different nodes in parallel. When a client sends a request to read a file, the scale-out NAS retrieves the appropriate blocks from multiple nodes, recombines the blocks into a file, and presents the file to the client. As nodes are added, the file system grows dynamically and data is evenly distributed to every node. Each node added to the cluster increases the aggregate storage, memory, CPU, and network capacity. Hence, cluster performance also increases.

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    2.Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts? (Choose two.)
    400-151 exam 
    Correct:D E
    3.What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links? Answer:
    4.Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)
    A.IP B.TCP
    400-151 dumps 
    Correct:B E
    5.Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask The network will reserve subnets of all “0’s” and all “1’s”. What is the maximum number of available subnets?
    6.Select the link state routing protocols. (Choose two.)
    400-151 pdf 
    Correct:D F
    7.What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?
    F.Frame Relay
    8.Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)
    E.repeaters hubs
    400-151 vce 
    Correct:A C
    9.What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an IPv4 address? Answer:
    10.What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks? Answer:
    400-151 exam 
    11.What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)
    A.static routing B.count
    to-infinity C.resource
    intensive D.slow
    convergence time E.lack
    of industry support
    Correct:B D
    12.A network uses a subnet mask of It reserves host addresses containing all “1’s”. How many host addresses are available for each subnet?
    400-151 dumps  
    13.What protocol provides access to the X.500 and is specifically targeted at simple management
    and browser applications? Answer:
    14.How many characters may be in a single domain name label?

    400-151 pdf 
    15.Which IPX network addresses are reserved for special purposes? (Choose three.)
    Correct:A C D
    16.How many bits are in an IPv4 address? Answer:
    400-151 vce 
    17.What IPX routing protocol offers load balancing capabilities without reducing the physical size of the internetwork? Answer:
    18.What information is exchanged in an initial “hello” packet between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
    A.hello interval
    B.router priority number
    C.full link state database
    D.IP address and subnet mask
    E.summary of the link state database
    F.summary of the link state advertising database
    400-151 exam 
    Correct:A B D
    19.A network administrator has been assigned a Class B network address of The administrator then subnetted the network with a subnet mask of If the administrator is reserving node addresses of all “0’s” and all “1’s,” what is the range of available node addresses for the subnet
    A. to
    B. to
    C. to
    D. to
    E. to
    F. to
    G. to
    H. to
    I. to
    J. to
    20.How many IP addresses must be combined to create the IP supernet address
    400-151 dumps 
    21. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of .
    A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
    B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
    C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
    D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
    Answer: B
    22. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
    A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
    B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
    C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
    D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
    400-151 pdf 
    Answer: CD
    23. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
    A. Garbage collection is not required.
    B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
    C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
    D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
    Answer: AB
    24. POSIX .
    A. is the same as UNIX
    B. is not designed for real-time systems
    C. does not support asynchronous I/O
    D. is an operating system interface standard

    400-151 vce Answer: D
    25. A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
    A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
    B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
    C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
    D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
    Answer: BC
    26. Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
    A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
    B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
    C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn’t available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor’s external queue.
    D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor’s queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.

    400-151 exam Answer: AB
    27. Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
    A. suspend / resume API’s
    B. direct cyclic executive support
    C. task synchronization
    D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
    Answer: CD
    28. Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)
    A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
    B. Allow a task’s use of a resource to be pre-empted
    C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time

    D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks’ priorities
    400-151 dumps 
    Answer: BC
    29. The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new priority? (Choose two.)
    A. The priority of the highest priority task
    B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
    C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
    D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked
    Answer: CD
    30. What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)
    A. Reduces overhead
    B. Increases overhead
    C. May starve lower priority tasks
    D. Avoids the need for priority queues
    400-151 pdf 
    Answer: BC
    31. A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a .
    A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application
    B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
    C. representative benchmark models a real application’s execution characteristics
    D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the application
    Answer: C
    32. Network protocol models are described as layers that .
    A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers (e.g., application)
    B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers (e.g., hardware)
    C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
    D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses

    400-151 vce Answer: A
    33. The primary requirement for an RTOS is to .
    A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
    B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
    C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
    D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)
    Answer: C
    34. A strictly conforming POSIX application .
    A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options
    B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
    C. uses only POSIX required API’s for its OS functionality
    D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance
    400-151 exam 
    Answer: C
    35. Which statement accurately describes where a “mark” exists in the MDA model hierarchy?
    A. as part of the PSM
    B. as part of the PIM
    C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
    D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM
    Answer: C
    36. In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM . (Choose TWO.)
    A. may be automated
    B. are required for all systems
    C. may be hand generated
    D. always produce executable code
    E. are always implemented in the QVT action language
    400-151 dumps 
    Answer: AC
    37. What does the term “Platform independence” mean?
    A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
    B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from some class of platforms.
    C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
    D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application may be deployed.
    Answer: B
    38. What is an “implementation model”?
    A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
    B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
    C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
    D. A file that is executable on some computer system.
    400-151 pdf 
    Answer: C
    39. What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose TWO.)
    A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model elements.
    B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of models.
    C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
    D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.
    Answer: BD
    40. A metamodel is a .
    A. set of UML templates for drawing system models
    B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
    C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
    D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems
    400-151 vce 
    Answer: B

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    Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
    A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
    B. It identifies the codec.
    C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
    D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
    400-101 exam Answer: B
    PT, Payload Type. 7 bits:
    Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
    Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
    A. 8
    B. 16
    C. 24
    D. 32
    Answer: B
    In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
    Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
    A. It is used for congestion control.
    B. It cannot be all zeros.
    C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
    D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
    400-101 dumps Answer: D
    The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
    Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
    Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
    A. the forwarding information base
    B. the label forwarding information base
    C. the IP routing table
    D. the label information table
    E. the adjacency table
    Answer: A,B
    The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
    Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
    A. alternating cost links
    B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
    C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
    D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
    400-101 pdf Answer: B,D
    This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are
    inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
    1: 1
    2: 7-8
    3: 1-1-1
    4: 1-1-1-2
    5: 1-1-1-1-1
    6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
    7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
    8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
    The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
    This means that:
    For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%. For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected). For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-
    25%-25%. This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

    Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the function it performs on the right.
    400-101 dumps
    Question No : 12. Following the installation of the Symposium Express 3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?
    A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.
    B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.
    C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
    D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
    400-101 vce Answer: C
    Question No : 13. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client ( to inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?
    A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.
    B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.
    C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
    D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package “CRTEmplates.msi”.
    Answer: D
    Question No : 14. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: “could not create database”. Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?
    A. Key the database in by hand.

    B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.
    C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.
    D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.
    400-101 exam Answer: D
    Question No : 15. A field engineer at a customer’s site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?
    A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.
    B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.
    C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions and re-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.
    D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.
    Question No : 16. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?
    A. Onto a remote directory of a network computer
    B. Only onto an application server other than the original server
    C. Only onto the same application server where the backup was created
    D. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server
    400-101 dumps Answer: D
    Question No : 17. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?
    A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.

    B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.
    C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.
    D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.
    Answer: D
    Question No : 18. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?
    A. config.sys
    B. lmhost table
    D. autoexec.bat
    400-101 pdf Answer: B
    Question No : 19. The field engineer is preparing to use the “import configuration data” wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the “import configuration data” wizard?
    A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
    B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.
    C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
    D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
    Question No : 20. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?
    A. TCP/IP on the PBX switch
    B. TCP/IP on the TAPI Server
    C. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RAS

    D. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server
    400-101 vce Answer: C

    Question No : 21. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?
    A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.
    B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
    C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.
    D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.
    Answer: C


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    QUESTION 8 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all that apply)
    A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
    B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
    C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
    D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
    300-170 exam Answer: A, B, C
    QUESTION 9 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after sending a purchase order via EDI?
    A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
    C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
    Answer: A
    QUESTION 10 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day operational control in a manufacturing firm?
    A. labor utilization variance
    B. materials utilization variance
    C. labor cost variance
    D. materials cost variance
    300-170 dumps Answer: D
    QUESTION 11 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an organization’s integration with its supplier?
    A. Quality inspection at the plant B.
    Involvement in product design C.
    Suppliers input in forms design
    D. Joint examination of costs structure
    Answer: B
    QUESTION 12 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
    A. Browsers
    B. Home pages
    C. Web sites
    D. Time sharing
    300-170 pdf Answer: D
    QUESTION 13 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
    A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
    B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
    C. They should establish a supplier’s strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
    D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
    production, and engineering.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION 14 If a supplier’s level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
    A. Timely inspection by the buyer’s company at the supplier’s plant

    B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
    C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer’s company’s quality control department
    D. Label “Quality of Material is Critical” on the purchase order
    300-170 vce Answer: A
    QUESTION 15 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76 centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3 standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20 centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
    A. controlled
    B. reckless
    C. statistically perfect
    D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
    Answer: A
    QUESTION 16 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an increased trend towards:
    A. suppliers partnering
    B. cross-functional teams
    C. risk factor management
    D. strategic supplier alliances
    300-170 exam Answer: B
    QUESTION 17 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when establishing a purchasing department?
    A. Select a purchasing system
    B. Develop list of suppliers
    C. Hire qualified buyers
    D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
    Answer: D

    Which of the following situations must be corrected FIRST to ensure successful information security governance within an organization?
    A. The information security department has difficulty filling vacancies.
    B. The chief information officer (CIO) approves security policy changes.
    C. The information security oversight committee only meets quarterly.
    D. The data center manager has final signoff on all security projects.
    300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D
    A steering committee should be in place to approve all security projects. The fact that the data center manager has final signoff for all security projects indicates that a steering committee is not being used and that information security is relegated to a subordinate place in the organization. This would indicate a failure of information security governance. It is not inappropriate for an oversight or steering committee to meet quarterly. Similarly, it may be desirable to have the chief information officer (CIO) approve the security policy due to the size of the organization and frequency of updates. Difficulty in filling vacancies is not uncommon due to the shortage of good, qualified information security professionals.
    Which of the following requirements would have the lowest level of priority in information security?
    A. Technical
    B. Regulatory
    C. Privacy
    D. Business
    Correct Answer: A
    Information security priorities may, at times, override technical specifications, which then must be rewritten to conform to minimum security standards. Regulatory and privacy requirements are government mandated and, therefore, not subject to override. The needs of the business should always take precedence in deciding information security priorities.
    When an organization hires a new information security manager, which of the following goals should this individual pursue FIRST?
    A. Develop a security architecture
    B. Establish good communication with steering committee members
    C. Assemble an experienced staff
    D. Benchmark peer organizations
    300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B
    New information security managers should seek to build rapport and establish lines of communication with senior management to enlist their support. Benchmarking peer organizations is beneficial to better understand industry best practices, but it is secondary to obtaining senior management support. Similarly, developing a security architecture and assembling an experienced staff are objectives that can be obtained later.
    It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
    A. Industry best practices
    B. Information technology plans
    C. Information security best practices
    D. Business objectives and goals
    Correct Answer: D
    Information security architecture should always be properly aligned with business goals and objectives. Alignment with IT plans or industry and security best practices is secondary by comparison.
    Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
    A. Policies
    B. Procedures
    C. Guidelines

    D. Standards
    300-170 vce Correct Answer: C
    Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.
    Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
    A. ability to mitigate business risks.
    B. evaluations in trade publications.
    C. use of new and emerging technologies.
    D. benefits in comparison to their costs.
    Correct Answer: A
    The most fundamental evaluation criterion for the appropriate selection of any security technology is its ability to reduce or eliminate business risks. Investments in security technologies should be based on their overall value in relation to their cost; the value can be demonstrated in terms of risk mitigation. This should take precedence over whether they use new or exotic technologies or how they are evaluated in trade publications.
    Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes?
    A. Standards
    B. Procedures
    C. Policies
    D. Guidelines
    300-170 exam Correct Answer: C
    Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes.
    The MOST important factor in planning for the long-term retention of electronically stored business records is to take into account potential changes in:
    A. storage capacity and shelf life.
    B. regulatory and legal requirements.
    C. business strategy and direction.
    D. application systems and media.
    Correct Answer: D
    Long-term retention of business records may be severely impacted by changes in application systems and media. For example, data stored in nonstandard formats that can only be read and interpreted by previously decommissioned applications may be difficult, if not impossible, to recover. Business strategy and direction do not generally apply, nor do legal and regulatory requirements. Storage capacity and shelf life are important but secondary issues.
    Which of the following is characteristic of decentralized information security management across a geographically dispersed organization?
    A. More uniformity in quality of service
    B. Better adherence to policies
    C. Better alignment to business unit needs
    D. More savings in total operating costs
    300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C
    Decentralization of information security management generally results in better alignment to business unit needs. It is generally more expensive to administer due to the lack of economies of scale. Uniformity in quality of service tends to vary from unit to unit.
    Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position to sponsor the design and implementation of a new security infrastructure in a large global enterprise?
    A. Chief security officer (CSO)
    B. Chief operating officer (COO)
    C. Chief privacy officer (CPO)
    D. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
    Correct Answer: B
    The chief operating officer (COO) is most knowledgeable of business operations and objectives. The chief privacy officer (CPO) and the chief legal counsel (CLC) may not have the knowledge of the day- to-day business operations to ensure proper guidance, although they have the same influence within the organization as the COO. Although the chief security officer (CSO) is knowledgeable of what is needed, the sponsor for this task should be someone with far-reaching influence across the organization.
    Which of the following would be the MOST important goal of an information security governance program?
    A. Review of internal control mechanisms
    B. Effective involvement in business decision making
    C. Total elimination of risk factors
    D. Ensuring trust in data
    300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D
    The development of trust in the integrity of information among stakeholders should be the primary goal of
      information security governance. Review of internal control mechanisms relates more to auditing, while the total elimination of risk factors is not practical or possible. Proactive involvement in business decision making implies that security needs dictate business needs when, in fact, just the opposite is true. Involvement in decision making is important only to ensure business data integrity so that data can be trusted.
    Relationships among security technologies are BEST defined through which of the following?
    A. Security metrics
    B. Network topology
    C. Security architecture
    D. Process improvement models
    Correct Answer: C
    Security architecture explains the use and relationships of security mechanisms. Security metrics measure improvement within the security practice but do not explain the use and relationships of security technologies. Process improvement models and network topology diagrams also do not describe the use and relationships of these technologies.

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    Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
    Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
    A. Risk probability and impact matrix
    B. Organizational process assets
    C. Enterprise environmental factors
    D. Risk management plan
    300-360 exam 
    Correct Answer: B
    There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input
    to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
    A. Risk register
    B. Cost management plan
    C. Risk management plan
    D. Enterprise environmental factors
    Correct Answer: D
    Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have
    studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants
    you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and
    impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
    A. Risk response plan
    B. Quantitative analysis
    C. Risk response
    D. Contingency reserve

    300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
    Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
    A. Authorizing Official
    B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
    C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
    D. Information system owner
    Correct Answer: D
    You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project
    execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives,
    which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
    A. Quantitative risk analysis
    B. Qualitative risk analysis
    C. Requested changes
    D. Risk audits
    300-360 pdf 
    Correct Answer: C
    Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management
    A. DoDD 8000.1
    B. DoD 7950.1-M
    C. DoD 5200.22-M
    D. DoD 8910.1
    E. DoD 5200.1-R
    Correct Answer: B
    The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which
    of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
    Choose all that apply.
    A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
    B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
    C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
    D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
    300-360 vce 
    Correct Answer: BCD
    Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his
    organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to
    help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees
    that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is
    most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
    A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.

    B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
    C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
    D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
    Correct Answer: A
    What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each
    correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
    A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
    B. Assign IA controls.
    C. Assemble DIACAP team.
    D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
    E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
    F. Conduct validation activity.
    300-360 exam 
    Correct Answer: ABCDE
    Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
    acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
    categories of risk?
    Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
    A. System interaction
    B. Human interaction
    C. Equipment malfunction
    D. Inside and outside attacks
    E. Social status
    F. Physical damage
    Correct Answer: BCDEF
    Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on
    several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many
    risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high
    risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there
    any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to
    A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
    B. Risks may be listed by categories
    C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
    D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
    300-360 dumps 
    Correct Answer: D
    In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
    A. Administrative
    B. Technical
    C. Power
    D. Physical

    Correct Answer: B
    You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are
    small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk
    A. These risks can be accepted.
    B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
    C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
    D. These risks can be dismissed.
    300-360 pdf 
    Correct Answer: B
    Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree
    Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine
    overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response
    that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to
    cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
    A. Risk identification
    B. Risk response
    C. Risk trigger
    D. Risk event
    Correct Answer: C
    QUESTION: 39
    That fact that minor changes in customer demand can become exaggerated as that demand is
    communicated up that supply chain is referred to as:
    A. embellished effect
    B. amplification effect
    C. bullwhip effect
    D. inflation effect
    300-360 vce Answer: C
    QUESTION: 40
    According to the supply management, one of the most useful ways to develop
    Is to begin with an inventory report listing all items in descending order of
    dollar spent.
    A. Top-down classification
    B. Slope classification
    C. Gradient classification
    D. ABC classification
    Answer: D
    QUESTION: 41
    A physical stock checking system in which the inventory is divided into groups that are
    physically counted at predetermined intervals is called:
    A. Continuous inventory
    B. Cycle counting
    C. Reconciliation
    D. None of the above
    300-360 exam 
    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 42
    The inventory reporting measures format is typically presented in which of the following way?
    A. weeks of supply
    B. average aggregate inventory
    C. inventory turnover
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
    QUESTION: 43
    Which of the following is NOT the component used to calculate the inventory holding costs?
    A. Released rates
    B. Invested funds
    C. Shrinkage
    D. Obsolescence
    300-360 dumps 
    Answer: A
    QUESTION: 44
    With what an organization’s inventory values are kept continuously in line with its actual
    inventory on hand?
    A. Services inventory control system
    B. Perpetual inventory control system
    C. Periodic inventory control system
    D. Temporary inventory control system
    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 45
    A term used to describe a ‘one piece flow’ business strategy that allows an organization to
    establish a continuous sequencing of product, within a flow process is known as:
    A. Flow manufacturing
    B. Inventory scheduling
    C. Just-in-time scheduling
    D. Online scheduling
    300-360 pdf 
    Answer: A
    QUESTION: 46
    A progressive approach to control inventory is called:

    A. Materials inventory
    B. Delays in production approach
    C. Supplier-managed inventory
    D. Depleted control approach
    Answer: C
    QUESTION: 47
    The term most often used to refer to the role of logistics in product returns, source reduction,
    recycling, materials substitution, reuse of materials, waster disposal, and refurbishing, repair an
    remanufacturing is known as:
    A. Multichannel logistics
    B. Reverse logistics
    C. Rearrange Materials logistics
    D. Switch State art logistics
    300-360 vce 
    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 48
    An intermediary who brings the buyer and the seller together is the:
    A. Dealer
    B. their-party specialist
    C. public surplus
    D. Broker
    Answer: D
    QUESTION: 49
    Applying the value of existing equipment against the purchase of new is referred to as:
    A. Bidding

    B. Trade-in
    C. Action
    D. Equipment sales
    300-360 exam 
    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 50
    A lean manufacturing technique in which the transformation of materials is traced from
    beginning to end to determine if there is waste in the process is called:
    A. Value stream mapping
    B. State map technique
    C. Fair market value mapping
    D. Customized stream mapping
    Answer: A
    QUESTION: 51
    New product ideas fall into following categories except:
    A. Breakthrough ideas
    B. Incremental ideas
    C. Derivative ideas
    D. Production ideas
    300-360 dumps 
    Answer: D
    QUESTION: 52
    A tool used to develop the technical specifications necessary to meet customer requirements is
    A. Quality function deployment
    B. Quality forecast
    C. Quality Matrix
    D. House of Quality

    Answer: A
    QUESTION: 53
    happens when one or more existing competitors realize an opportunity to improve
    their position or when they are responding to the pressure from other competitors.
    A. Substitute bargaining
    B. Antagonism
    C. Rivalry
    D. Business Conflict
    300-360 pdf 
    Answer: C
    QUESTION: 54
    A standard of point of reference used in measuring or judging an organization’s performance
    according to selected criteria is called:
    A. Performance assessment
    B. Benchmarking
    C. Process revelation
    D. None of the above
    300-360 vce 
    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 55
    Which of the following essentially translate an organization’s business plan into an operation
    A. Requirement plan
    B. Staffing plan
    C. Capital investment plan
    D. Services resources

    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 56
    The amount of reserve capacity that a firm maintains to handle sudden increases in demand or
    temporary losses of production capacity is called:
    A. Capacity cushion
    B. Capacity capability
    C. Capacity staffing
    D. Capacity board
    Answer: A
    QUESTION: 57
    The process which begins by understanding the product such as its value, its physical
    characteristics such as length, height, width, and weight and its fragility is called:
    A. Packaging optimization
    B. Product optimization
    C. Process Throughput
    D. Flood flow gain
    300-360 exam 
    Answer: A
    QUESTION: 58
    A practice that involves purchasing professional in the new product or service development
    process from its inception is called:
    A. Service level professionalism
    B. Statement of work flow
    C. Early purchasing Improvement
    D. Initializing consent
    Answer: C
    QUESTION: 59
    What is used to obtain general information about products, services or suppliers and is
    information request, not binding on either the supplier or the purchaser?
    A. Procurement document
    B. Solicitation document
    C. Target market
    D. Qualified product description
    300-360 dumps 
    Answer: B
    QUESTION: 60
    What involves taking out an investment that will specifically reduce or cancel out the risk in
    another investment?
    A. Operational strategy
    B. Situational factor
    C. Hedging strategy
    D. Optimization strategy
    Answer: C
    QUESTION: 61
    Two back-to-back quarters of negative gross domestic product growth is referred to as:
    A. Recession
    B. Hunch
    C. Nose-dive
    D. Obsolescence
    300-360 pdf 
    Answer: A

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    Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

    Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online. Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest percentage of time online according to Google?
    A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
    B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
    C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
    D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
    400-351 exam Answer: D
    Your client wants to use Google AdWords’ ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video ad for your customer?
    A. You’ll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
    B. You’ll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
    C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
    D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
    Answer: D
    Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
    A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
    B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
    C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
    D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
    400-351 dumps Answer: A
    Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her. How can the SEO firm now manage Beth’s account?
    A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth’s account to their account.
    B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth’s account through the My Client Center program.
    C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
    D. The SEO firm will need Beth’s account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
    Answer: A
    Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
    A. Internationally
    B. Globally
    C. Locally
    D. Nationally
    400-351 pdf Answer: B
    You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality score calculated for this feature?
    A. The type of device you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
    B. The type of operating system you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
    C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content placement.
    D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It’s calculated using a variety of factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user’s search query.
    Answer: D
    Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
    A. Keyword Review tool
    B. AdWords Editor tool
    C. Google AdWords ad tool
    D. Disapproved Ads tool
    400-351 vce Answer: D
    You’re serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client, is new to Web-based business sales and he’s concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his ad for a short period of time. What’s the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for Bob?
    A. 15 minutes per week
    B. 48 hours per week
    C. 1 hour per week
    D. 24 hours per week
    Answer: A
    Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best explanation of Google’s double-serving policy?
    A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
    B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business operating on more than one server.
    C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
    D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar businesses.
    400-351 exam Answer: A
    John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network. How can John opt out of the Google Network?
    A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
    B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the Google Network.
    C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
    D. John cannot opt of the network – once he joins his account is attached to the program.
    Answer: C
    Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she’s hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery. She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad – rather than advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
    A. Region and city targeting
    B. Customized targeting
    C. Country targeting
    D. Predictive targeting
    400-351 dumps Answer: D
    Linda has a discount clothing store and she’d like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google AdWords?
    A. Good Discounted Clothes
    B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
    C. Fashion 4U Here
    D. No Clothes
    Answer: C
    Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred’s ad to be displayed?
    A. Car that’s been used
    B. Used and new car
    C. Used toy car
    D. Buy used car
    400-351 pdf Answer: D
    You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
    A. Network devices setting
    B. Exclusion tools setting
    C. Web pages setting
    D. Placement targeting setting
    Answer: D
    Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
    A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
    B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
    C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
    D. Use a text ad.
    400-351 vce Answer: B
    Your client wants to be ranked number one in Google search listings on the keyword golf. How can Google AdWords helps this goal?
    A. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if the client enrolls in the Google Organic Search program and the GoogleAdWords program.
    B. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if their ad uses the same keywords on the client’s Website.
    C. Participation in Google AdWords will not help the client’s organic search results.
    D. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword.
    Answer: C
    What tool can you use with Google AdWords to determine how much time customers spend on your site after they click your ad?
    A. Google Analytics
    B. Google Pack
    C. Google Translate
    D. Google Trends for Websites
    400-351 exam Answer: A
    Wendy has created a new Google AdWords account and she has selected her time zone as EST. Wendy later realizes that she should have selected the time zone as PST. How can Wendy change the time zone in her Google AdWords account?
    A. Wendy can change the time zone as Administrative account in the Account Settings.
    B. Wendy can’t change the time zone without calling the Google AdWords support center.
    C. Shecannot. Once the time zone is set, it cannot be changed.
    D. Wendy can change the time zone as an Administrative account through Options/Settings.
    Answer: C

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