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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 25
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input
to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have
studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants
you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and
impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project
execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives,
which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management
Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which
of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
300-360 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 32
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his
organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to
help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees
that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is
most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
300-360 exam Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 34
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
QUESTION 35
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on
several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many
risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high
risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there
any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to
Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are
small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk
events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree
Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine
overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response
that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to
cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
That fact that minor changes in customer demand can become exaggerated as that demand is
communicated up that supply chain is referred to as:
A. embellished effect
B. amplification effect
C. bullwhip effect
D. inflation effect
300-360 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
According to the supply management, one of the most useful ways to develop
Is to begin with an inventory report listing all items in descending order of
dollar spent.
A. Top-down classification
B. Slope classification
C. Gradient classification
D. ABC classification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
A physical stock checking system in which the inventory is divided into groups that are
physically counted at predetermined intervals is called:
A. Continuous inventory
B. Cycle counting
C. Reconciliation
D. None of the above
300-360 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The inventory reporting measures format is typically presented in which of the following way?
A. weeks of supply
B. average aggregate inventory
C. inventory turnover
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is NOT the component used to calculate the inventory holding costs?
A. Released rates
B. Invested funds
C. Shrinkage
D. Obsolescence
300-360 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
With what an organization’s inventory values are kept continuously in line with its actual
inventory on hand?
A. Services inventory control system
B. Perpetual inventory control system
C. Periodic inventory control system
D. Temporary inventory control system
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
A term used to describe a ‘one piece flow’ business strategy that allows an organization to
establish a continuous sequencing of product, within a flow process is known as:
A. Flow manufacturing
B. Inventory scheduling
C. Just-in-time scheduling
D. Online scheduling
300-360 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
A progressive approach to control inventory is called:
A. Materials inventory
B. Delays in production approach
C. Supplier-managed inventory
D. Depleted control approach
Answer: C
QUESTION: 47
The term most often used to refer to the role of logistics in product returns, source reduction,
recycling, materials substitution, reuse of materials, waster disposal, and refurbishing, repair an
remanufacturing is known as:
A. Multichannel logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Rearrange Materials logistics
D. Switch State art logistics
300-360 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
An intermediary who brings the buyer and the seller together is the:
A. Dealer
B. their-party specialist
C. public surplus
D. Broker
Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
Applying the value of existing equipment against the purchase of new is referred to as:
A. Bidding
B. Trade-in
C. Action
D. Equipment sales
300-360 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
A lean manufacturing technique in which the transformation of materials is traced from
beginning to end to determine if there is waste in the process is called:
A. Value stream mapping
B. State map technique
C. Fair market value mapping
D. Customized stream mapping
Answer: A
QUESTION: 51
New product ideas fall into following categories except:
A. Breakthrough ideas
B. Incremental ideas
C. Derivative ideas
D. Production ideas
300-360 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
A tool used to develop the technical specifications necessary to meet customer requirements is
called:
A. Quality function deployment
B. Quality forecast
C. Quality Matrix
D. House of Quality
Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
happens when one or more existing competitors realize an opportunity to improve
their position or when they are responding to the pressure from other competitors.
A. Substitute bargaining
B. Antagonism
C. Rivalry
D. Business Conflict
300-360 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 54
A standard of point of reference used in measuring or judging an organization’s performance
according to selected criteria is called:
A. Performance assessment
B. Benchmarking
C. Process revelation
D. None of the above
300-360 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 55
Which of the following essentially translate an organization’s business plan into an operation
plan?
A. Requirement plan
B. Staffing plan
C. Capital investment plan
D. Services resources
Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The amount of reserve capacity that a firm maintains to handle sudden increases in demand or
temporary losses of production capacity is called:
A. Capacity cushion
B. Capacity capability
C. Capacity staffing
D. Capacity board
Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
The process which begins by understanding the product such as its value, its physical
characteristics such as length, height, width, and weight and its fragility is called:
A. Packaging optimization
B. Product optimization
C. Process Throughput
D. Flood flow gain
300-360 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 58
A practice that involves purchasing professional in the new product or service development
process from its inception is called:
A. Service level professionalism
B. Statement of work flow
C. Early purchasing Improvement
D. Initializing consent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
What is used to obtain general information about products, services or suppliers and is
information request, not binding on either the supplier or the purchaser?
A. Procurement document
B. Solicitation document
C. Target market
D. Qualified product description
300-360 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
What involves taking out an investment that will specifically reduce or cancel out the risk in
another investment?
A. Operational strategy
B. Situational factor
C. Hedging strategy
D. Optimization strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
Two back-to-back quarters of negative gross domestic product growth is referred to as:
A. Recession
B. Hunch
C. Nose-dive
D. Obsolescence
300-360 pdf Answer: A

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] 100% Pass Rate Cisco 400-351 Dumps CCIE Wireless Written Exam Video Study with Latest Version PDF&VCE

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Which CCIE Wireless certification should you take Cisco 400-351 dumps? The CCIE Wireless Written Exam (400-351 CCIE Wireless) exam is a 120 minutes (90-110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Wireless certification. “CCIE Wireless Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-351 exam. 100% pass rate Cisco 400-351 dumps CCIE Wireless Written exam video study with latest version pdf&vce. This really can be called the best training materials. Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-351.html dumps  authentication certificate is the dream IT certificate of many people.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 6
Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online. Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Your client wants to use Google AdWords’ ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video ad for your customer?
A. You’ll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You’ll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
400-351 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her. How can the SEO firm now manage Beth’s account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth’s account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth’s account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth’s account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
400-351 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It’s calculated using a variety of factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user’s search query.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
400-351 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You’re serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client, is new to Web-based business sales and he’s concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his ad for a short period of time. What’s the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best explanation of Google’s double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar businesses.
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network. How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network – once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she’s hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery. She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad – rather than advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
400-351 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Linda has a discount clothing store and she’d like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred’s ad to be displayed?
A. Car that’s been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
Your client wants to be ranked number one in Google search listings on the keyword golf. How can Google AdWords helps this goal?
A. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if the client enrolls in the Google Organic Search program and the GoogleAdWords program.
B. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if their ad uses the same keywords on the client’s Website.
C. Participation in Google AdWords will not help the client’s organic search results.
D. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
What tool can you use with Google AdWords to determine how much time customers spend on your site after they click your ad?
A. Google Analytics
B. Google Pack
C. Google Translate
D. Google Trends for Websites
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Wendy has created a new Google AdWords account and she has selected her time zone as EST. Wendy later realizes that she should have selected the time zone as PST. How can Wendy change the time zone in her Google AdWords account?
A. Wendy can change the time zone as Administrative account in the Account Settings.
B. Wendy can’t change the time zone without calling the Google AdWords support center.
C. Shecannot. Once the time zone is set, it cannot be changed.
D. Wendy can change the time zone as an Administrative account through Options/Settings.
Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but
is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the
login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description
D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network
administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be
done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip
address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While
debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces
Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
300-115 dumps

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration
from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the
existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to
complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?
300-115 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is
configured with EtherChannel mode active.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Q&As: 112

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1. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 exam Answer: BCDEFG
2. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C
3. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 dumps Answer: EFG
4. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400
product families?
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
5. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all
request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be
saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http
C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
600-510 pdf Answer: D
6. A UDP application is considered down if the server returns:
A. No packet
B. A garbage packet
C. An UDP probe packet
D. An ICMP unreachable packet
Answer: D
7. An active health check is done:
A. At each user request
B. According to the configured time values
C. When the Reassign-Threshold is exceeded
D. When there is a status change from the server
600-510 vce Answer: B
8. An HTTP health check can return:
A. A keepalive
B. Status code
C. Content verification
D. A value to increment the Reassign-Threshold
Answer: BC
9. Which of the following Health Check types are performed at Layer 7?
A. Arp Request
B. TCP C.
HTTP D.
IMAP4
E. UDP F.
LDAP G.
MMS H.
RSTP
600-510 exam Answer: CDFG
10. How many simultaneous levels of health checks can be configured on the ServerIron to health check
the same real server
A. Layer 3, Layer4
B. Layer4, Layer7
C. Layer3, Layer4, Layer7, content match
D. Layer 4, Layer7, content match
Answer: B
11. What will be the corresponding Virtual MAC Address belonging to a configured VIP 175.30.15.10
(AF:1E:0F:0A)
A. VMACs have to be manually configured
B. AF:1E:0F:0A:FF:FF
C. 02:0C:DB:1E:0F:0A
D. 02:0C:AF:1E:0F:0A
600-510 dumps Answer: C
12. What must be done before a Health-Check Policy will take effect?
A. The Health-Check Policy must be bound to the VIP
B. The Health-Check Policy intervals and reset must be define
C. The Health-Check Policy must be attached to an application port on a real server
D. The Health-Check Policy must be configured to use 3-way handshaking
Answer: C
13. A Matching List can contain:
A. Log
B. URL
C. Down simple D.
Status codes E.
Up Compound
600-510 pdf Answer: ACE
14. When health checking is enabled, a server response time consists of the combination of its response
to client requests and its response to Layer 4 or Layer 7 health checks from the ServerIron.
A. True B.
False
Answer: B
15. When using a scripted health check, the default health check is disabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
16. A scripted health check can only contain searches for:
A. ASCII content
B. Status codes
C. Status codes and ASCII content
D. Status codes, ASCII content and keepalives
Answer: C
17. Port profiles are used to define:
A. Port types
B. Status of ports
C. Well known ports
D. HTTP health checks
600-510 vce Answer: A
18. The Foundry ServerIron can perform Layer 7 health checks on the following TCP applications (select
all that applies)?
A. FTP (port 21)
B. POP3 (port 110)
C. LDAP (port 389)
D. SNMP
Answer: ABC
19. Health checks to port 443 can be:
A. Secure
B. Simple
C. Simple and Secure
D. Simple, Secure and Boolean
600-510 exam Answer: AB
20. A Port Profile is a set of attributes that defines a TCP/UDP port. Which of the following are valid Port
Profile Attributes?
A. l4-healthck
B. Keepalive interval and retries
C. TCP or UDP age
D. Keepalive state
Answer: BCD
21.Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads – one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups – one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns – one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it’s the most common of the four languages she’s targeting.
600-510 dumps Answer: C
22.You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)
Answer: C
23.In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
600-510 pdf Answer: D
24.Holly is the webmaster for her company’s website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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    1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements
    1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities
    1.2.a Apply different API models
    1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
    1.2.b [i] Controller-based
    1.2.b [ii] Device-centric API (distributed)
    1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)
    1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies
    1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications
    1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work
    1.5 Document application/networking touch points
    1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] A Brief Study Guide On The Best Cisco 200-155 Dumps DCICT Questions Answers Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 71
What term is assigned to the barriers that women and minorities may face when trying to advance to senior levels of an organization?
A. Societal barrier
B. Internal structure barrier
C. Governmental barrier
D. Glass ceiling
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 72
Your organization has employed a temporary worker for a position in your company. During employment the individual has been called to military duty. Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 are you obligated to reinstate the individual upon his return from duty?
A. No, because temporary employees do not have reinstatement rights.
B. No, because once an employee leaves, you are not obligated to reinstate them.
C. Yes, if they have been working as a temporary employee for more than 90 days.
D. Yes, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 requires it.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 73
Mark is a contractor for the CleanSweep Chimney Company. When the CleanSweep Chimney Company has work that they can’t manage they’ll send Mark to the customer site to quote on the work based on their standardized fees and complete the work on their behalf. The company will pay Mark for his time. Mark, however, often tells the home owners what the CleanSweep Chimney Company will charge, but he can personally do the job for less than the CleanSweep Chimney Company. What is this an example of?
A. Bait and switch
B. Breach of duty of loyalty
C. Breach of duty of diligence
D. Breach of duty of obedience
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 74
What is the most effective method to use when an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group?
A. An employee survey
B. A skip-level interview
C. An employee focus group
D. A brown-bag lunch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A skip-level interview provides an opportunity for a manager’s manager to obtain insight into the goals and satisfaction of employees in the work group. An employee survey (A) is best used to gather information about various issues that can be collated and summarized. A focus group (B) can be used to involve employees in the decision-making process. A brown-bag lunch (D) is an effective way for senior managers to meet with small groups of employees to answer questions about the company goals and mission and to obtain feedback about operations. See Chapter 7 for more information.
QUESTION 75
If a dress-code policy prohibits the use of ethnic clothing, but an employee requests an accommodation based on their religious preference, how should the employer respond?
A. Modify the dress code unless doing so would create an undue hardship.
B. Refuse the accommodation based on business necessity.
C. Allow the employee to dress in ethnic clothing with sufficient advance notice.
D. Only allow the clothing on casual dress days, when other employees are also allowed to dress outside of policy guidelines.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.A dress-code policy is generally an accepted employer practice, provided it applies to all employees or employees in certain job categories. There are exceptions, however, based on ethnicity or religious practices. As with any other accommodation, an employer should actively seek a solution that does not result in undue hardship. See
QUESTION 76
Your organization is looking for methods to improve communication between the management and the employees within the company. Which one of the following methods is best described as a small but representative sampling of employees – led in a conversation by a neutral moderator about an identified topic?
A. Pilot group
B. Focus group
C. Workshop
D. Brainstorming session
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A focus group is often used to find an employee-driven solution to a problem. Focus groups typically, but not always, include sampling of employees from across the organization. Focus groups should be led by neutral moderators, rather than members of the management. What are focus groups? Focus groups are directed conversations for gathering ideas, opinions about a product, service, problem, or opportunity.
References:
QUESTION 77
What is the difference between organizational culture and organizational climate?
A. There is no difference; the terms may be used interchangeably.
B. Organizational culture discusses the learning of the organization. Organizational climate discusses how well the learning happens.
C. Organizational culture defines the values of the company. Organizational climate defines the implementation of the values.
D. Organization climate is the sense of hostility. Organization culture is the sense of hospitality.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 78
All of the following reasons for termination of an employee are examples of wrongful termination except for which one?
A. Violation of company policy
B. Being a member of a protected class
C. Whistleblower
D. Filing a worker’s compensation claim
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 79
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
B. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
C. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a lawsuit  against the organization.
D. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral third party rather than through a lawsuit.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Free CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Free Study Guides 100% Pass With A High Score (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 52
Patrick visits his teenage daughter’s social media page and discovers several offensive posts about one of her classmates. After speaking with his daughter, Patrick learns that several other girls in her class are upset with the classmate and have been posting, texting and e-mailing others about the girl. What is the best way for Patrick to help his daughter understand cyberbullying?
A. He should advise his daughter to ignore the posts, texts and c-mails.
B. He should explain to his daughter that she is participating in the bullying by accepting others’ posts, texts and c-mails.
C. He should explain to his daughter that the Internet embraces freedom of speech, and anyone is allowed to write anything.
D. He should advise his daughter to delete all the posts, texts and c-mails she has received, as well as any new ones that appear.
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 53
When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. use the images without purchasing a license.
D. assume copyright of the images.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 54
Which type of application allows you to edit and validate your source code and preview your Web pages in multiple browsers?
A. GUI HTML editor
B. HTML text editor
C. Word processor
D. Compiler
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 55
Evonka is listening to music from an online music provider (such as Pandora or Jango). She builds a list of music preferences, including favorite songs. The music service then suggests additional songs she might enjoy. The music
provider is an example of a cloud-computing application that uses a technology for collaborative filtering, which helps define the list of songs available to listeners. Which term describes this technology?
A. Bit-torrent r
B. Crowdsourcing
C. Grid computing
D. Software as a Service
Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The App-A-Day company offers software applications for various topics. When a customer purchases a desired application from the App-A-Day online store, he is directed to a page where he can download the application directly. When the customer is redirected and begins downloading the application, which specific standard protocol is most likely transferring the application?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SMTP
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
Which of the following is a disadvantage of implementing a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy in a company?
A. Increased cost for licensing mobile applications
B. Configuring the corporate e-mail server to work with mobile devices
C. Inability to control access to company data if the device is stolen or lost
D. Providing training for employees on how to use mobile devices with company applications
Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
When using cloud-based services to host company data, a company’s disaster recovery plan should include strategies for:
A. creating redundancy and ensuring there is an exclusive contract with the cloud service provider.
B. distributing data and software services across multiple cloud service providers.
C. creating redundancy and using multiple cloud service providers.
D. using a single well-established cloud service provider.
210-260 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
Marsha’s boss directed her to create a mobile version of the company’s Web site. To ensure her mobile site is optimized, Marsha eliminates banners and advertisements. What other recommendations should Marsha follow?
A. Use images instead of video on the Web site.
B. Use white space to give the site an uncluttered look.
C. Use Flash content to replace lengthy text descriptions.
D. Create several Web sites, each tailored to a specific mobile platform.
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
Which set of standards developed by the W3C Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) project provides a universal set of standards promoting accessibility for all Web users, including those with disabilities?
A. Web Content Accessibility Guidelines
B. User Agent Accessibility Guidelines
C. W3C Authoring Tool Accessibility Guidelines
D. Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act
Answer: A
QUESTION: 61
You have just checked the balance in your bank account by logging into your bank’s Web site. Which protocol was most likely used for the transmission of your information?
A. IMAPS
B. HTTPS
C. POP3
D. FTPS
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 62
You can use the HTML <input>, <select> and <text area> tags to create form fields in a Web page by placing them between the <form> /form> container tags. Which attribute is used with the <input> element to designate the fields that will appear in the form?
A. The type attribute B.
The name attribute C.
The value attribute D.
The action attribute
Answer: A
QUESTION: 63
Which term describes the practice of actively collecting wireless networking data from companies and individuals?
A. War driving
B. Spear phishing
C. Dictionary attack
D. Social engineering
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 64
Your Web browser is currently open and displaying a popular sports site. You decide that you want to browse to the CIW site without closing the browser. What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?
A. By performing a search on your computer for the term “CIW”
B. By performing a search within the site currently displayed in your Web browser
C. By typing in the FTP address (ftp.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
D. By typing the CIW site’s URL (www.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
Answer: D
QUESTION: 65
What should be your first step when troubleshooting a network connection that uses a cable modem?
A. Ping the proxy server.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping local devices using their DNS names.
D. Ping local devices using their IP addresses.
210-260 vce Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
300-135 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre
defined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Wisdom
C. Information
D. Knowledge
300-135 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. A method of structuring an organization
D. Responds to specific events
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
300-135 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure
300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
The term ‘Service Management’ is best used to describe?
A. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form
of services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Desk Manager
D. The Service Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Capacity Management
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
300-135 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Defining roles and responsibilities
D. Monitoring services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
D. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice”
300-135 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-370
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Updated: Aug 24, 2017
Q&As: 60

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300-370 dumps

Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-370 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the
CAPWAP messages?
A. debug pm pki enable
B. debug cert events enable
C. debug capwap events enable
D. debug capwap packet enable
E. debug capwap errors enable
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network
using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate.
Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps

A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication.
Which configurationiscausing the failure?
A. The AP has override global credentials checked.
B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE.
C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISE
D. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
An AP will be deployed to an area where DHCP Option 43 is unavailable and the WLAN engineer is unable
to have DNS modifications made to support this AP. Which two actions can enable the AP to join the
WLC? (Choose two)
A. Issue the clear capwap private-config command in the AP console.
B. Pre-stage or prime the AP on the same Layer 2 VLAN as the WLC.
C. Issue the capwap ap ip default-gateway WLC IP address command in the AP console.
D. Issue the capwap ap ip address WLC IP address command in the AP console.
E. Issue the capwap ap controller ip address WLC IP address command in the AP console.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802. 11ac WLAN at customer site Doe to interferences
with neighboring 802 11n networks the engineer must determine the current primary secondary channel
allocation to enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary
20 MHz channel.
Which combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHZ channels?
A. primary 40 MHz channel 62, primary 80 MM: channel 58
B. primary 40 MHz channel 54, primary 80 MHz channel 58
C. primary 40 MHz channel 64, primary 80 MHz channel 60
D. primary 40 MHz channel 60, primary 80 MHz channel 56
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An engineer has received an alarm on a wireless LAN controller and is unsure of its meaning. The
engineer attempted to ping the wireless LAN controller interfaces.
Which troubleshooting methodology does this action demonstrate?
A. bottom-up
B. follow the path
C. shoot from the hip
D. top-down
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
300-370 vce Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
A wireless engineer has completed the configuration of a new WLAN on the existing Cisco wireless
infrastructure. During testing he found that the wireless client’s authenticate and received the correct ip
address from the switch, but they were not able to access any of the internal or external resources. Which
action will resolve the issue?
A. Configure static ip addresses for the wireless clients.
B. Configure the default-router on the switch DHCP pool.
C. Configure option 82 on the switch DHCP pool.
D. Configure a dns-server on the switch DHCP pool.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true?
A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off.
B. Debug is a message logging severity 7.
C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI.
D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject
message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the
controller to dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps

A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the
management interface subnet.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout
the building when browsing the Internet.
Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

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