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Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments

  • Install, upgrade, and migrate servers and workloads
  • Install and configure Nano Server
  • Create, manage, and maintain images for deployment

Implement Storage Solutions

  • Implement server storage
  • Implement data deduplication

Implement Hyper-V

  • Install and configure Hyper-V
  • Configure virtual machine (VM) settings
  • Configure Hyper-V storage
  • Configure Hyper-V networking

Implement Windows Containers

  • Deploy Windows containers
  • Manage Windows containers

Implement High Availability

  • Implement high availability and disaster recovery options in Hyper-V
  • Implement failover clustering
  • Implement Storage Spaces Direct
  • Manage failover clustering
  • Manage VM movement in clustered nodes

Implement Domain Name System (DNS)

  • Install and configure DNS servers
  • Implement and Maintain IP Address Management (IPAM)

Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions

  • Implement virtual private network (VPN) and DirectAccess solutions

Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure

  • Implement high performance network solutions
  • Determine scenarios and requirements for implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN)

Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

  • Install and configure domain controllers

Implement identity federation and access solutions

  • Install and configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Implement Web Application Proxy (WAP)

Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network List Manager Policies are security settings that you can use to configure different aspects of how networks are listed and displayed on one computer or on many computers. Network List Manager Policies are not related to DNSSEC.

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the registration.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B. From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C. From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D. From IPv4, create a new filter.
E. From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F. From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G. From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H. From Scope1, create a reservation.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will
attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The Docker daemon runs on Server1.
You need to ensure that members of a security group named Docker Administrators can administer Docker. What should you do?
A. Run theSet-Service cmdlet.
B. Modify the Security settings of Dockerd.exe.
C. Edit the Daemon.json file.
D. Modify the Security settings of Docker.exe.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon. On VM1, you have a container network that uses transparent mode. You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP. What should you do?
A. On VM1, run docker network connect.
B. On Server1, run docker network connect.
C. On VM1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter 璏acAddressSpoofing On.
D. On Server1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter ?MacAddressSpoofing On.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If the container host is virtualized, and you wish to use DHCP for IP assignment, you must enable MACAddressSpoofing.
PS C:\> Get-VMNetworkAdapter -VMName ContainerHostVM | Set-VMNetworkAdapter – MacAddressSpoofing On
The command needs to be run on the Hyper-V host.

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 and VM1 run Windows Server 2016. The settings for VM1 are configured as shown in the exhibit below.
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You need to ensure that you can use the Copy-VMFile cmdlet on Server1 to copy files from VM1. Solution: You need to enable the Data Exchange integration service for VM1. Does this meet the goal?
A. YES
B. NO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
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You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export- DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
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You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You add a computer to subnet1. The computer has an IP address of 10.10.0.129 Web1 receives a request from the new computer and sends a response. What should you do?
A. 10.10.0.129
B. 10.10.0.224
C. 131.107.0.223
D. 172.16.128.222
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to deploy several shielded virtual machines on Server1. You deploy a Host Guardian on a new server. You need to ensure that Server1 can host shielded virtual machines.
What should you do first?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
70-743 exam Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You discover that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with Server1 over the network. You need to ensure that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with each other only. The solution must prevent VM1 and VM2 from communicating with Server1.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Enable-VMSwitchExtention
B. Set-NetNeighbor
C. Set-VMSwitch
D. Remove-VMSwitchTeamMember
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The virtual switch needs to be configured as an “Private” switch.

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT). Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology. Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.

  1. Microsoft Exams 70-740, 70-741, and 70-742
  2. Time allotted for exam: 120 minutes (per exam)
  3. Number of questions: 40-60* (per exam)
  4. Question types: Active screen; Build list; Case study; Drag and drop; Hot area; Multiple choice/Best answer; Multiple choice/Single answer; Multiple choice/Multiple answer; Short answer
  5. Exam registration: Microsoft Learning or Pearson Vue
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Pass4itsure Free Citrix 1Y0-301 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to create a device collection of new vGPU-enabled virtual desktops in Provisioning Services. The collection needs to be made available as part of an existing machine catalog in Citrix Studio. Which wizard should the engineer run to accomplish this task?
A. Import Device Wizard
B. XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C. Create Machine Catalog Wizard
D. Provisioning Services Configuration Wizard
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A XenDesktop deployment with 200 virtual desktops has a host connection to a single XenServer pool configured for thin provisioning. A Citrix Engineer has been instructed to implement IntelliCache. Which steps must the engineer take to meet the requirements stated in the scenario?
A. Modify the existing host connection and enable IntelliCache.
B. Create a new resource using the existing host connection and enable IntelliCache.
C. Delete the existing resource, create a new one with the same name and enable IntelliCache.
D. Delete the existing host connection, create a new connection to the same pool and enable IntelliCache.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which step can a Citrix Engineer take to reduce logon times when using Citrix Profile Management?
A. Use offline files
B. Use Personal vDisk
C. Disable profile streaming
D. Implement folder redirection
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer selected the Provisioning Services write cache option `Cache on server persistent\’ for a vDisk. The engineer needs to ensure that users are NOT interrupted if a Provisioning Services server fails. What should the engineer configure to enable high availability (HA) on the Provisioning Services servers?
A. Place the write cache on a DFS-R share.
B. Toggle HA in the Provisioning Services database.
C. Change the write cache location to cache on the device.
D. Copy the write cache from one server to the second server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Where should a Citrix Engineer set up a restart schedule for a pool of Server OS machines?
A. Policy within Citrix Studio
B. Delivery Group properties
C. Virtual machine properties
D. Machine catalog properties
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Machine catalogs may __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. only be mapped to one Delivery Group
B. be assigned to an Active Directory group
C. only contain one type of operating system
D. contain a mix of image management methods
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which PowerShell cmdlet will reset StoreFront to the initial factory settings once the StoreFront server is removed from an existing server group?
A. Clear-DSConfiguration
B. Clear-WebConfiguration
C. Remove-SFServiceMetadata
D. Remove-SFServerFromCluster
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which policy option allows for advanced printer options for large industrial printers while keeping drivers to a minimum
and accounting for multiple printer models in use?
A. Use only printer model specific drivers.
B. Use automatic installation of in-box printer drivers.
C. Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable.
D. Change the universal driver preference to PCL5c, EMF, XPS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: Users in an environment are NOT logging off gracefully. A Citrix Engineer notices that an executable is still
running in the user context. What should the engineer do to ensure graceful logoff from hosted applications?
A. Disable session lingering.
B. Disable connection leasing.
C. Modify LogoffCheckSysModules in the registry.
D. Modify Citrix Profile Manager folder redirect settings.
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which mode should a database be configured for when using a SQL mirrored solution with Provisioning Services?
A. High-performance mode (Synchronous)
B. High-performance mode (Asynchronous)
C. High-safety mode with a witness (Synchronous)
D. High-safety mode with a witness (Asynchronous)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: After using evaluation licensing to explore XenDesktop, a Citrix Engineer installs valid Enterprise licenses on the Citrix License Server. The engineer confirms that the licenses show correctly in the license console. A few weeks later, users in the environment report that they are receiving an error message when logging into Desktop OS machines that states the evaluation license is about to expire. What should the engineer do to correct this issue?
A. Select the correct product edition in Citrix Studio.
B. Delete the evaluation license and restart the License service.
C. Reallocate the production license with the FQDN of the License Server.
D. Reinstall the production licenses on the License Server and restart the License service.
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to set up printers for users in a newly installed XenDesktop environment with default
parameters. Users in the environment will access hosted resources for PCs. These users will have printing access to two printers: Printer A and Printer B. Printer A is their default printer. Which printer(s) will be available to the users in an ICA session?
A. Neither
B. Printer A
C. Printer B
D. Both printers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which keyword should a Citrix Engineer use to launch the locally installed version of a hosted application when it is available?
A. Auto
B. Prefer
C. Primary
D. Featured
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which feature should a Citrix Engineer implement to ensure that client devices do NOT connect directly to back-end components?
A. ICA Proxy
B. StoreFront
C. URL Rewrite
D. Secure Ticket Authority (STA)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How should a Citrix Engineer configure a hosted application so that only a subset of users within an existing Delivery Group are able to access the hosted application?
A. Configure the \’Prefer\’ keyword.
B. Configure Limit Visibility to the target users.
C. Create an HDX policy based on the user group.
D. Publish the application to only the subset of users.
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Scenario: A corporate security policy prohibits the creation of domain accounts unless absolutely necessary. During the
deployment of XenDesktop, a Citrix Engineer created a new SQL site database. Which account type should the engineer use to grant permission on the SQL site configuration database for production use?
A. SQL account
B. Domain service account
C. Local account on Delivery Controllers
D. Delivery Controller computer accounts
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A Citrix Engineer is in the process of setting up a remote access solution using self-signed certificates. To help ensure a secure remote connection, the engineer must install a Root certificate on the __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. endpoint device
B. StoreFront server
C. Domain Controllers
D. Delivery Controllers
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is using the XenApp Services Support URL to enable support for legacy clients. The services URL is configured with explicit authentication. The engineer needs to configure StoreFront to support pass through for a new group of legacy clients. How could the engineer configure pass-through authentication for the new group of legacy clients while maintaining explicit authentication for existing legacy clients?
A. Add the pass-through authentication method in the site configuration file.
B. Change the services support site authentication method to pass-through.
C. Create a new store and set pass-through authentication as the \’LogonMethod\’ on the services URL.
D. Add the pass-through authentication method to the legacy services URL using the StoreFront console.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A Personal vDisk can be __________ and ____________. (Choose the two correct phrases to complete the sentence.)
A. used with servers and desktops
B. placed on a different storage than the write cache
C. used for application installations only and NOT drivers
D. used with a third-party user profile management solution
E. used with Provisioning Services to stream to physical and virtual machines
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
Which two Windows components can be selected using the Provisioning Services Device Optimization Tool? (Choose two.)
A. Search
B. Firewall
C. SuperFetch
D. Screen Saver
E. TCP/IP Offload
Correct Answer: AC

The Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration exam is divided into the following sections:

  • Installing and Implementing XenServer
  • Managing and Maintaining Hosts
  • Managing and Maintaining Virtual Machines and Templates
  • Configuring and managing resource pools
  • Installing and configuring Provisioning Services
  • Maintaining Provisioning Services
  • Configuring Advanced Features
  • Backing up and Restoring
  • Troubleshooting

Please note: Exam A26 now validates the skills needed to install, configure and maintain Provisioning Services in a XenServer environment.

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Planning and managing a client life cycle strategy (16%)
  • Plan and manage client licensing and activation
  • Plan and manage software updates
  • Plan and manage a physical hardware and virtualization strategy
Designing a standard image (17%)
  • Design an image creation strategy
  • Design a custom image
  • Define an image update strategy
Designing client configurations (17%)
  • Design standard system settings
  • Define client security standards
  • Define Windows Internet Explorer settings
Designing a Windows 7 client deployment (15%)
  • Analyze the environment and choose appropriate deployment methods
  • Design a lite-touch deployment strategy
  • Design a zero-touch deployment strategy
  • Design a user state migration strategy
Designing application packages for deployment (17%)
  • Design a delivery or deployment strategy
  • Manage application compatibility
Identifying and resolving deployment and client configuration issues (19%)
  • Identify and resolve Internet Explorer issues
  • Identify and resolve Group Policy issues
  • Identify and resolve networking issues
  • Identify and resolve authentication and authorization issues
Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-744 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-9)

QUESTION 1
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with Windows Server 2008 R2 member servers and 1,000 Windows 7 client computers.
You are designing the deployment of a custom application.
You have the following requirements:
You need to design a deployment strategy that meets the requirements.
Which deployment method should you use?
A. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
B. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007
C. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
D. software installation in Group Policy
70-686 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The RemoteApp and Desktop Connections feature offers several benefits: RemoteApp programs launch from the Start menu just like any other application. Published Remote Desktop connections are included alongside RemoteApp programs on the Start menu. Changes to the published connection (such as newly published RemoteApp programs) are automatically reflected on the user’s Start menu, without any effort on the user’s part. RemoteApp programs can be easily launched with Windows Search. Users only have to log on once, to create the connection. From that point on, updates happen with no prompt for user credentials. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections does not require domain membership for client computers. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections benefits from new features in Windows Server 2008 R2, such as Personal Desktop assignment or per-user application filtering. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections is built on standard technologies
such as XML and HTTPS, making it possible for developers to build solutions around it. It also offers APIs that allow the client software to support other types of resources, in addition to RemoteApp programs and Remote Desktop connections.

QUESTION 2
Your company’s network has client computers that run Windows 7. Multiple users share the computers in the shipping department. These computers reside in the Shipping Computers organizational unit (OU).
The company wants to deploy a new application. The application is not packaged.
You have the following requirements:
You need to plan the software deployment process to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you include in the process? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, create a collection that contains the shipping department computers, and assign the package to the collection.
B. Create a package by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the Computer Configuration container.
D. In the Group Policy Management Console, link the software installation policy to the Shipping Computers OU.
E. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, create a collection that contains the shipping department users, and assign the package to the collection.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hints:
GPO only support MSI & ZAP file type this application is not packaged = non MSI or ZaP file type

QUESTION 3
Your network has client computers that run Windows XP. All users access a custom line-of- business application. The line-of-business application is not compatible with Windows 7.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7.
You have the following requirements:
You need to manage application compatibility to meet the requirements. What should you do?
A. Install the application on a Remote Desktop Services server.
B. Install a shim for the application on each client computer.
C. Virtualize the application by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V).
D. Install the Windows Compatibility Evaluator on each client computer.
70-686 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows XP Professional x64.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
The company uses an application that is incompatible with Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
You have the following requirements:
You need to design a solution that meets the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Install the application on all client computers by using Group Policy, and then use the Compatibility tab.
B. Install the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client on each client computer, and run the application in offline mode.
C. Install the Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) package on each client computer.
D. Install the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client on each client computer, and stream the application by using App-V.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Your companys network has client computers that run Windows 7. Multiple users share the computers in the shipping department. These computers reside in the Shipping Computers organizational unit (OU). The network design is shown in the following diagram.
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You are planning to deploy an application. The application is packaged as a Microsoft Windows Installer package (MSI).
You need to deploy the application only to computers in the shipping department. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link the software installation policy to the Workstations OU.
B. Link the software installation policy to the Shipping Computers OU.
C. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the User Configuration container.
D. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the Computer Configuration container.
70-686 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To specify how and when computers are updated through Group Policy In Group Policy Object Editor, expand Computer Configuration, expand Administrative Templates, expand Windows Components, and then click Windows Update. In the
details pane of Group Policy Object Editor, configure the appropriate policies. See the following table for examples of the policies you might want to set.. refer to

QUESTION 6
Your company has two Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains, Domain1 and Domain2. A two-way trust relationship exists between the domains. Users in both domains can log on to client computers in only their own domains. System logs on the domain controllers display the error message Clock skew too great when users in Domain1 attempt to log on to client computers in Domain2. You need to ensure that users can log on to client computers in both domains. What should you do?
A. Decrease the Maximum tolerance for computer clock synchronization setting in the default Domain Group Policy object ( GPO ).
B. Configure the primary domain controller (PDC) emulatorin each domain to synchronize its clock with the same external time source.
C. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /setsntp on all client computers.
D. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /querysntp on all client computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain named contoso.com. The design of the organizational units (OUs) and Group Policy objects (GPOs) is shown in the following diagram.
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Multiple computer configuration settings and user configuration settings are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO. A security audit indicates that user configuration settings that are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO are not applied when users log on to client computers that are in the Kiosk Computers OU. You need to ensure that the user configuration settings are correctly applied. What should you do?
A. Enable loopback processing in Merge mode on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
B. Disable the user configuration settings on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
C. Enable loopback processing in Replace mode on the Kiosk Computers GPO.
D. Disable the user configuration settings on the New York Users GPO.
70-686 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Refer to Planning and managing windows 7 desktop deployments and environment Pg 10-92

QUESTION 8
You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the
Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed. If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options. Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line. Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays. Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data. Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed. However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

QUESTION 9
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers. All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU). Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers. You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications. What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
70-686 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document. When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the Trusted Sites and Local
Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc784600(v=ws.10).aspx hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established by using a Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

While the Windows 7 MCSA certification was retired in the fall of 2015, certain exams were kept available in order to allow IT pros to continue to earn Specialist certifications. Exams 70-680, 70-686 dumps, and 70-694 will be retired on July 31, 2018. One of the most significant changes in Microsoft’s new streamlined certification structure is the evolution of its certifications related to Azure.

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Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
  • Configure disk and file encryption
  • Implement malware protection
  • Protect credentials
  • Create security baselines
Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
  • Implement a Guarded Fabric solution
  • Implement Shielded and encryption-supported VMs
Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
  • Configure Windows Firewall
  • Implement a Software Defined Datacenter Firewall
  • Secure network traffic
Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
  • Implement Just-In-Time (JIT) Administration
  • Implement Just-Enough-Administration (JEA)
  • Implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and User Rights Assignments
  • Implement Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS)
Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
  • Configure advanced audit policies
  • Install and configure Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA)
  • Determine threat detection solutions using Operations Management Suite (OMS)
Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)
  • Secure application development and server workload infrastructure
  • Implement a secure file services infrastructure and Dynamic Access Control (DAC)

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Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-744 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-13)
QUESTION 1
Your network contains two single-domain Active Directory forests named contoso.com and contosoadmin.com. Contosoadmin.com contains all of the user accounts used to manage the servers in contoso.com. You need to recommend a workstation solution that provides the highest level of protection from vulnerabilities and attacks. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Provide a Privileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each user account in both forests. Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain.
B. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each user in the contoso.com forest Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain.
C. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each administrator. Join each PAW to the contoso.com domain.
D. Provide a Pnvileged Access Workstation (PAW) for each administrator. Join each PAW to the contosoadmin.com domain.
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that use the same or simitar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a shared folder named Share1. You need to ensure that all access to Share1 uses SMB Encryption. Which tool should you use?
A. File Explorer
B. Shared Folders
C. Server Manager
D. Disk Management
E. Storage Explorer
F. Computer Management
G. System Configuration
H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)>
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Windows Firewall rules can be configured using PowerShell. The “Set-NetFirewallProfile” cmdlet configures settings that apply to the per-profile configurations of the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. What is the default setting for the AllowInboundRules parameter when managing a GPO?
A. FALSE
B. NotConfigured
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
 70-744 dumps
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1.
End of repeated scenario
You need to ensure that the marketing department computers validate DNS responses from adatum.com. Which setting should you configure in the Computer Configuration node of GP1?
A. TCPIP Settings from Administrative Templates
B. Connection Security Rule from Windows Settings
C. DNS Client from Administrative Templates
D. Name Resolution Policy from Windows Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The New-CIPolicy cmdlet creates a Code Integrity policy as an .xml file. If you do NOT supply either driver files or rules what will happen?
A. The cmdlet performs a system scan
B. An exception/warning is shown because either one is required
C. Nothing
D. The cmdlet searches the Code Integrity Audit log for drivers
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoio.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Administration that contains the computer account of Server1. You import the Active Directory module to Served1. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 You link GPO1 to the Administration OU. You need to log an event each time an Active Directory cmdlet is executed succesfully from Served. What should you do?
A. From Advanced Audit Policy in GPO1 configure auditing for directory service changes.
B. Run the (Get-Module ActiveDirectory).LogPipelineExecutionDetails – $false command.
C. Run the (Get-Module ArtivcDirectory).LogPipelineExecutionDetails = $true command.
D. From Advanced Audit Policy in GPO1 configure auditing for other privilege use events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 client computers that run Windows 10. A security audit reveals that the network recently experienced a Pass-the-Hash attack. The attack was initiated from a client computer and accessed Active Directory objects restricted to the members of the Domain Admins group. You need to minimize the impact of another successful Pass-the-Hash attack on the domain. What should you recommend?
A. Instruct all users to sign in to a client computer by using a Microsoft account.
B. Move the computer accounts of all the client computers to a new organizational unit (OU). Remove the permissions to the new OU from the Domain Admins group.
C. Instruct all administrators to use a local Administrators account when they sign in to a client computer.
D. Move the computer accounts of the domain controllers to a new organizational unit (OU). Remove the permissions to the new OU from the Domain Admins group.
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA). You create a user named User1. You need to configure the user account of User1 as a Honeytoken account. Which information must you use to configure the Honeytoken account?
A. the SAM account name of User1
B. the Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) of User1
C. the SID of User1
D. the UPN of User1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Yout network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network. The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally. Computer1 runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080. You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network.
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Serve1, that runs Windows Server 2016. A technician is testing the deployment of Credential Guard on Server1. You need to verify whether Credential Guard is enabled on Server1. What should you do?
A. From a command prompt fun the credwiz.exe command.
B. From Task Manager, review the processes listed on the Details tab.
C. From Server Manager, click Local Server, and review the properties of Server!
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-WsManCredSSP cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You create a Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) workspace. You need to connect several computers directly to the workspace. Which two pieces of information do you require? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. the ID of the workspace
B. the name of the workspace
C. the URL of the workspace
D. the key of the workspace
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Read the following statement carefully and answer YES or NO. You create a rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” that allows everyone in the organization to run Windows but does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor.
The effect of this rule would prevent users such as help desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks. To resolve this problem, you create a second rule that applies to the Helpdesk user group: “Allow Helpdesk to run Registry Editor.” However, if you created a deny rule that did not allow any users to run Registry Editor, would the deny rule override the second rule that allows the Helpdesk user group to run Registry Editor?
A. NO
B. YES
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The “Network Security: Restrict NTLM: NTLM authentication in this domain” policy setting allows you to deny or allow NTLM authentication within a domain from this domain controller. Which value would you choose so that the domain controller will deny all NTLM authentication logon attempts using accounts from this domain to all servers in the domain.
The NTLM authentication attempts will be blocked and will return an NTLM blocked error unless the server name is on the exception list in the Network security: Restrict NTLM: Add server exceptions in this domain policy setting.
A. Deny for domain accounts
B. Deny for domain accounts to domain servers
C. Deny all
D. Deny for domain servers
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: B

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  • Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions (70-532)
  • Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions (70-533)
  • Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions (70-534)
  • Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions (70-473)
  • Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions (70-475)
  • Securing Windows Server 2016 (70-744)
  • Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure (70-413)
  • Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure (70-414)
  • Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud (70-246)
  • Configuring and Deploying a Private Cloud (70-247)

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Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-734 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 37
In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited
B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting
C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic
70-734 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows supports two types of ACLs: discretionary access control lists (DACLs) and system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditing is enabled. In addition to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and DACL are all statically held as attributes of each object. Windows also offers the functionality to inherit permissions, which allows the child objects existing within a parent object to automatically inherit the ACLs of the parent object. ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identifiers (SIDs). These are automatically generated by a Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though a user may identify his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representation of the true SID, which is used by the underlying operating system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account’s SID rather than the account’s username or group name while granting access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer GUI but can also be configured with CLI commands or other third- party tools.
QUESTION 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?
A. Near zero RPO
B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitation
D. Faster response time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Synchronous Replication
In synchronous remote replication, writes must be committed to the source and remote replica (or target), prior to acknowledging “write complete” to the host. Additional writes on the source cannot occur until each preceding write has been completed and acknowledged. This ensures that data is identical on the source and replica at all times. Further, writes are transmitted to the remote site exactly in the order in which they are received at the source. Therefore, write ordering is maintained. If a source-site failure occurs, synchronous remote replication provides zero or near-zero recovery-point objective (RPO).
QUESTION 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs
70-734 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Intra-array Storage Tiering

The process of storage tiering within a storage array is called intra-array storage tiering. It enables the efficient use of SSD, FC, and SATA drives within an array and provides performance and cost optimization. The goal is to keep the SSDs busy by storing the most frequently accessed data on them, while moving out the less frequently accessed data to the SATA drives. Data movements executed between tiers can be performed at the LUN level or at the sub-LUN level. The performance can be further improved by implementing tiered cache. Traditionally, storage tiering is operated at the LUN level that moves an entire LUN from one tier of storage to another. This movement includes both active and inactive data in that LUN. This method does not give effective cost and performance benefits. Today, storage tiering can be implemented at the sub-LUN level. In sub-LUN level tiering, a LUN is broken down into smaller segments and tiered at that level. Movement of data with much finer granularity, for example 8 MB, greatly enhances the value proposition of automated storage tiering. Tiering at the sub-LUN level effectively moves active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
QUESTION 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
A. Persistent Port Disable
B. Port Binding
C. Port Lockdown
D. Persistent Switch Disable
70-734 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Securing FC Switch Ports
Apart from zoning and LUN masking, additional security mechanisms, such as port binding, port lockdown, port lockout, and persistent port disable, can be implemented on switch ports. Port binding: Limits the devices that can attach to a particular switch port and allows only the corresponding switch port to connect to a node for fabric access. Port binding mitigates but does not eliminate WWPN spoofing. Port lockdown and port lockout: Restrict a switch port’s type of initialization. Typical variants of port lockout ensure that the switch port cannot function as an E-Port and cannot be used to create an ISL, such as a rogue switch. Some variants ensure that the port role is restricted to only F- Port, E-Port, or a combination of these. Persistent port disable: Prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot.
QUESTION 42
What does a block map contain in a file system snapshot?
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot
B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the first time
C. Blocks that have changed since the creation of the snapshot
D. Blocks that have been modified in either the source or the target
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

File system (FS) snapshot is a pointer-based replica that requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS. It uses the Copy on First Write (CoFW) principle to create snapshots. When a snapshot is created, a bitmap and blockmap are created in the metadata of the Snap FS. The bitmap is used to keep track of blocks that are changed on the production FS after the snap creation. The blockmap is used to indicate the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS . Immediately after the creation of the FS Snapshot, all reads from the snapshot are actually served by reading the production FS. In a CoFW mechanism, if a write I/O is issued to the production FS for the first time after the creation of a snapshot, the I/O is held and the original data of production FS corresponding to that location is moved to the Snap FS. Then, the write is allowed to the production FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Subsequent writes to the same location will not initiate the CoFW activity. To read from the Snap FS, the bitmap is consulted. If the bit is 0, then the read is directed to the production FS. If the bit is 1, then the block address is obtained from the blockmap and the data is read from that address on the snap FS. Read requests from the production FS work as normal.
QUESTION 43
What describes a full mesh topology?
A. All switches are directly connected to each other
B. Consists of core and edge switch tiers
C. Requires four switches
D. Requires two ISL hops for host to storage traffic
70-734 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Mesh Topology

A mesh topology may be one of the two types: full mesh or partial mesh. In a full mesh, every switch is connected to every other switch in the topology . A full mesh topology may be appropriate when the number of switches involved is small. A typical deployment would involve up to four switches or directors, with each of them servicing highly localized host-tostorage traffic. In a full mesh topology, a maximum of one ISL or hop is required for host-tostorage traffic. However, with the increase in the number of switches, the number of switch ports used for ISL also increases. This reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity. In a partial mesh topology, several hops or ISLs may be required for the traffic to reach its destination. Partial mesh offers more scalability than full mesh topology. However, without proper placement of host and storage devices, traffic management in a partial mesh fabric might be complicated and ISLs could become overloaded due to excessive traffic aggregation.
QUESTION 44
What is a characteristic of pointer-based virtual replication?
A. Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session
B. Replica device is at least as large as the source device
C. Replica is available only after detachment from the source
D. Source does not need to be healthy for the restore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pointer-based Virtual Replication
In pointer-based virtual replication, at the time of the replication session activation, the target contains pointers to the location of the data on the source. The target does not contain data at any time. Therefore, the target is known as a virtual replica. Similar to pointer-based full-volume replication, the target is immediately accessible after the replication session activation. This replication method uses CoFW technology and typically recommended when the changes to the source are less than 30%.
QUESTION 45
When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does the backup client run?
A. Proxy server
B. Hypervisor
C. Virtual machine
D. Backup device
70-734 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Image-based Backup
Image-based backup operates at the hypervisor level and essentially takes a snapshot of the VM. It creates a copy of the guest OS and all the data associated with it (snapshot of VM disk files), including the VM state and application configurations. The backup is saved as a single file called an “image” and this image is mounted on the proxy server (acts as a backup client). The backup software then backs up these image files normally. This effectively offloads the backup processing from the hypervisor and transfers the load on the proxy server, thereby reducing the impact to VMs running on the hypervisor. Image-based backup enables quick restoration of a VM.
QUESTION 46
Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a single storage platform?
A. Unified
B. Scale-out
C. Gateway
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Unified NAS
The unified NAS consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based data access within a unified storage platform and provides a unified management interface for managing both the environments. Unified NAS performs file serving and storing of file data, along with providing access to block- level data. It supports both CIFS and NFS protocols for file access and iSCSI and FC protocols for block level access. Due to consolidation of NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platform, unified NAS reduces an organization’s infrastructure and management costs. A unified NAS contains one or more NAS heads and storage in a single system. NAS heads are connected

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 810-502 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 29
In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functions of the FC-1 layer?
A. Encoding and decoding
B. Routing and flow control
C. Interface mapping and flow control
D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FC-1 Layer: It defines how data is encoded prior to transmission and decoded upon receipt. At the transmitter node, an 8-bit character is encoded into a 10-bit transmission character. This character is then transmitted to the receiver node. At the receiver node, the 10-bit character is passed to the FC-1 layer,  which decodes the 10-bit character into the original 8-bit character. FC links with speed 10 Gbps and above use 64-bit to 66-bit encoding algorithm. This layer also defines the transmission words such as FC frame delimiters, which identify the start and end of a frame and primitive signals that indicate events at a transmitting port. In addition to these, the FC-1 layer performs link initialization and error recovery.
QUESTION 30
What is a security implementation in NAS environments?
A. Kerberos
B. Port binding
C. S_ID Lockdown
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security Implementation in NAS
NAS is open to multiple exploits, including viruses, worms, unauthorized access, snooping, and data tampering. Various security mechanisms are implemented in NAS to secure data and the storage networking infrastructure. Permissions and ACLs form the first level of protection to NAS resources by restricting accessibility and sharing. These permissions are deployed over and above the default behaviors and attributes associated with files and folders. In addition, various other authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as Kerberos and directory services, are implemented to verify the identity of network users and define their privileges. Similarly, firewalls protect the storage infrastructure from unauthorized access and malicious attacks.
QUESTION 31
In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning?
A. Restricts RSCN traffic
B. Isolates fabric services
C. Enables online volume expansion
D. Provides non-disruptive data migration
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Zoning
Zoning is an FC switch function that enables node ports within the fabric to be logically segmented into groups and communicate with each other within the group. Whenever a change takes place in the name server database, the fabric controller sends a Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to all the nodes impacted by the change. If zoning is not configured, the fabric controller sends an RSCN to all the nodes in the fabric. Involving the nodes that are not impacted by the change results in increased fabric-management traffic. For a large fabric, the amount of FC traffic generated due to this process can be significant and might impact the host-to-storage data traffic. Zoning helps to limit the number of RSCNs in a fabric. In the presence of zoning, a fabric sends the RSCN to only those nodes in a zone where the change has occurred.
QUESTION 32
What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?
A. 1

B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centers to access a single copy of data?
A. VPLEX
B. VMAX
C. VNX
D. Vblock
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMC VPLEX
EMC VPLEX is the next-generation solution for block-level virtualization and data mobility both within and across datacenters. The VPLEX appliance resides between the servers and heterogeneous storage devices. It forms a pool of distributed block storage resources and enables creating virtual storage volumes from the pool. These virtual volumes are then allocated to the servers. The virtual-to-physical storage mapping remains hidden to the servers. VPLEX provides nondisruptive data mobility among physical storage devices to balance the application workload and to enable both local and remote data access. The mapping of virtual volumes to physical volumes can be changed dynamically by the administrator. VPLEX uses a unique clustering architecture and distributed cache coherency that enable multiple hosts located across two locations to access a single copy of data. VPLEX also provides the capability to mirror
  data of a virtual volume both within and across locations. This enables hosts at different data centers to access cache-coherent copies of the same virtual volume. To avoid application downtime due to outage at a data center, the workload can be moved quickly to another data center. Applications continue accessing the same virtual volume and remain uninterrupted by the data mobility. The VPLEX family consists of three products: VPLEX Local, VPLEX Metro, and VPLEX Geo. EMC VPLEX Local delivers local federation, which provides simplified management and nondisruptive data mobility across heterogeneous arrays within a data center. EMC VPLEX Metro delivers distributed federation, which provides data access and mobility between two VPEX clusters within synchronous distances that support round-trip latency up to 5 ms. EMC VPLEX Geo delivers data access and mobility between two VPLEX clusters within asynchronous distances (that support round-trip latency up to 50 ms).
QUESTION 34
Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to a secondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system?
A. MirrorView
B. SnapView
C. RepliStor
D. SRDF
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMC MirrorView
The MirrorView software enables EMC VNX storage arraybased remote replication. It replicates the contents of a primary volume to a secondary volume that resides on a different VNX storage system. The MirrorView family consists of MirrorView/Synchronous (MirrorView/S) and MirrorView/Asynchronous (MirrorView/A) solutions. MirrorView/S is a synchronous product that mirrors data between local and remote storage systems. MirrorView/A is an asynchronous product that offers extended distance replication based on periodic incremental update model. It periodically updates the remote copy of the data with all the changes that occurred on the primary copy since the last update.
QUESTION 35
A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings. Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
A. Incremental
B. Cumulative
C. Full
D. Differential
810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backup Granularity

Backup granularity depends on business needs and the required RTO/RPO. Based on the granularity, backups can be categorized as full, incremental, and cumulative (or differential). Most organizations use a combination of these three backup types to meet their backup and recovery requirements. Figure on the slide depicts the different backup granularity levels. Full backup is a backup of the complete data on the production volumes. A full backup copy is created by copying the data in the production volumes to a backup storage device. It provides a faster recovery but requires more storage space and also takes more time to back up. Incremental backup copies the data that has changed since the last full or incremental backup, whichever has occurred more recently. This is much faster than a full backup (because the volume of data backed up is restricted to the changed data only) but takes longer to restore . Cumulative backup copies the data that has changed since the last full backup. This method takes longer than an incremental backup but is faster to restore. Another way to implement full backup is synthetic (or constructed) backup. This method is used when the production volume resources cannot be exclusively reserved for a backup process for extended periods to perform a full backup. It is usually created from the most recent full backup and all the incremental backups performed after that full backup. This backup is called synthetic because the backup is not created directly from production data. A synthetic full backup enables a full backup copy to be created offline without disrupting the I/O operation on the production volume. This also frees up network resources from the backup process, making them available for other production uses.
QUESTION 36
What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Scale-out NAS
The scale-out NAS implementation pools multiple nodes together in a cluster. A node may consist of either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operation as a single entity.
  A scale-out NAS provides the capability to scale its resources by simply adding nodes to a clustered NAS architecture. The cluster works as a single NAS device and is managed centrally. Nodes can be added to the cluster, when more performance or more capacity is needed, without causing any downtime. Scale-out NAS provides the flexibility to use many nodes of moderate performance and availability characteristics to produce a total system that has better aggregate performance and availability. It also provides ease of use,
low cost, and theoretically unlimited scalability. Scale-out NAS creates a single file system that runs on all nodes in the cluster. All information is shared among nodes, so the entire file system is accessible by clients connecting to any node in the cluster. Scale-out NAS stripes data across all nodes in a cluster along with mirror or parity protection. As data is sent from clients to the cluster, the data is divided and allocated to different nodes in parallel. When a client sends a request to read a file, the scale-out NAS retrieves the appropriate blocks from multiple nodes, recombines the blocks into a file, and presents the file to the client. As nodes are added, the file system grows dynamically and data is evenly distributed to every node. Each node added to the cluster increases the aggregate storage, memory, CPU, and network capacity. Hence, cluster performance also increases.

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2.Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
400-151 exam 
Correct:D E
3.What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
4.Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)
A.IP B.TCP
C.FTP
D.NFS
E.UDP
F.ARP
400-151 dumps 
Correct:B E
5.Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask 255.255.224.0. The network will reserve subnets of all “0’s” and all “1’s”. What is the maximum number of available subnets?
Answer:
A.6
Correct:A
6.Select the link state routing protocols. (Choose two.)
A.RIP B.LAT
C.SNA
D.NLSP
E.RTMP
F.OSPF
400-151 pdf 
Correct:D F
7.What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?
A.PPP
B.ATM
C.X.25
D.SLIP E.ISDN
F.Frame Relay
Correct:B
8.Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)
A.NICs
B.routers
C.switches
D.gateways
E.repeaters
F.active hubs
400-151 vce 
Correct:A C
9.What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.THREE
Correct:A
10.What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
400-151 exam 
Correct:A
11.What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)
A.static routing B.count
to-infinity C.resource
intensive D.slow
convergence time E.lack
of industry support
Correct:B D
12.A network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. It reserves host addresses containing all “1’s”. How many host addresses are available for each subnet?
A.255
B.512
C.1023
D.2047
400-151 dumps  
Correct:D
13.What protocol provides access to the X.500 and is specifically targeted at simple management
and browser applications? Answer:
A.LDAP,(LIGHTWEIGHTDIRECTORYACCESSPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
14.How many characters may be in a single domain name label?
A.16
B.63

C.120
D.255
400-151 pdf 
Correct:B
15.Which IPX network addresses are reserved for special purposes? (Choose three.)
A.00000000
B.11111111
C.FFFFFFFF
D.FFFFFFFE
E.AAAAAAAA
F.AAAA0000
Correct:A C D
16.How many bits are in an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.32
400-151 vce 
Correct:A
17.What IPX routing protocol offers load balancing capabilities without reducing the physical size of the internetwork? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
18.What information is exchanged in an initial “hello” packet between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
A.hello interval
B.router priority number
C.full link state database
D.IP address and subnet mask
E.summary of the link state database
F.summary of the link state advertising database
400-151 exam 
Correct:A B D
19.A network administrator has been assigned a Class B network address of 150.225.0.0. The administrator then subnetted the network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. If the administrator is reserving node addresses of all “0’s” and all “1’s,” what is the range of available node addresses for the subnet 150.225.32.0?
A.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.44.254
B.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.47.254
C.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.48.254
D.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.50.254
E.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.52.254
F.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.44.254
G.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.46.254
H.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.48.254
I.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.52.254
J.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.54.254
Correct:A
20.How many IP addresses must be combined to create the IP supernet address 215.100.16.0/21?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
G.8
H.9
I.10
400-151 dumps 
Correct:G
21. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of .
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
Answer: B
22. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
400-151 pdf 
Answer: CD
23. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: AB
24. POSIX .
A. is the same as UNIX
B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard

400-151 vce Answer: D
25. A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
Answer: BC
26. Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn’t available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor’s external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor’s queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.

400-151 exam Answer: AB
27. Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
A. suspend / resume API’s
B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
Answer: CD
28. Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
B. Allow a task’s use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time

D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks’ priorities
400-151 dumps 
Answer: BC
29. The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new priority? (Choose two.)
A. The priority of the highest priority task
B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked
Answer: CD
30. What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces overhead
B. Increases overhead
C. May starve lower priority tasks
D. Avoids the need for priority queues
400-151 pdf 
Answer: BC
31. A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a .
A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application
B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
C. representative benchmark models a real application’s execution characteristics
D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the application
Answer: C
32. Network protocol models are described as layers that .
A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers (e.g., application)
B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers (e.g., hardware)
C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses

400-151 vce Answer: A
33. The primary requirement for an RTOS is to .
A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)
Answer: C
34. A strictly conforming POSIX application .
A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options
B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API’s for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance
400-151 exam 
Answer: C
35. Which statement accurately describes where a “mark” exists in the MDA model hierarchy?
A. as part of the PSM
B. as part of the PIM
C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM
Answer: C
36. In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM . (Choose TWO.)
A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language
400-151 dumps 
Answer: AC
37. What does the term “Platform independence” mean?
A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from some class of platforms.
C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application may be deployed.
Answer: B
38. What is an “implementation model”?
A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
D. A file that is executable on some computer system.
400-151 pdf 
Answer: C
39. What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose TWO.)
A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.
Answer: BD
40. A metamodel is a .
A. set of UML templates for drawing system models
B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems
400-151 vce 
Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits:
Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
400-101 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are
inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%. For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected). For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-
25%-25%. This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
Question No : 12. Following the installation of the Symposium Express 3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?
A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.
B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.
C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
400-101 vce Answer: C
Question No : 13. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client (04.00.037.00 to 04.02.011.04 inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?
A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.
B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.
C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package “CRTEmplates.msi”.
Answer: D
Question No : 14. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: “could not create database”. Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?
A. Key the database in by hand.

B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.
C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.
D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Question No : 15. A field engineer at a customer’s site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?
A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.
B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.
C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions and re-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.
D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.
Answer:A
Question No : 16. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?
A. Onto a remote directory of a network computer
B. Only onto an application server other than the original server
C. Only onto the same application server where the backup was created
D. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 17. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?
A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.

B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.
C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.
D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.
Answer: D
Question No : 18. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?
A. config.sys
B. lmhost table
C. command.com
D. autoexec.bat
400-101 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 19. The field engineer is preparing to use the “import configuration data” wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the “import configuration data” wizard?
A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.
C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
Answer:A
Question No : 20. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?
A. TCP/IP on the PBX switch
B. TCP/IP on the TAPI Server
C. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RAS

D. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server
400-101 vce Answer: C

Question No : 21. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?
A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.
B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.
D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.
Answer: C

 

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 8 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
  agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
300-170 exam Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 9 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A
QUESTION 10 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
300-170 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an organization’s integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant B.
Involvement in product design C.
Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
300-170 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier’s strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
production, and engineering.
Answer: C
QUESTION 14 If a supplier’s level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer’s company at the supplier’s plant

B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer’s company’s quality control department
D. Label “Quality of Material is Critical” on the purchase order
300-170 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 15 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76 centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3 standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20 centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
300-170 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following situations must be corrected FIRST to ensure successful information security governance within an organization?
A. The information security department has difficulty filling vacancies.
B. The chief information officer (CIO) approves security policy changes.
C. The information security oversight committee only meets quarterly.
D. The data center manager has final signoff on all security projects.
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A steering committee should be in place to approve all security projects. The fact that the data center manager has final signoff for all security projects indicates that a steering committee is not being used and that information security is relegated to a subordinate place in the organization. This would indicate a failure of information security governance. It is not inappropriate for an oversight or steering committee to meet quarterly. Similarly, it may be desirable to have the chief information officer (CIO) approve the security policy due to the size of the organization and frequency of updates. Difficulty in filling vacancies is not uncommon due to the shortage of good, qualified information security professionals.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following requirements would have the lowest level of priority in information security?
A. Technical
B. Regulatory
C. Privacy
D. Business
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security priorities may, at times, override technical specifications, which then must be rewritten to conform to minimum security standards. Regulatory and privacy requirements are government mandated and, therefore, not subject to override. The needs of the business should always take precedence in deciding information security priorities.
QUESTION 20
When an organization hires a new information security manager, which of the following goals should this individual pursue FIRST?
A. Develop a security architecture
B. Establish good communication with steering committee members
C. Assemble an experienced staff
D. Benchmark peer organizations
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New information security managers should seek to build rapport and establish lines of communication with senior management to enlist their support. Benchmarking peer organizations is beneficial to better understand industry best practices, but it is secondary to obtaining senior management support. Similarly, developing a security architecture and assembling an experienced staff are objectives that can be obtained later.
QUESTION 21
It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security architecture should always be properly aligned with business goals and objectives. Alignment with IT plans or industry and security best practices is secondary by comparison.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines

D. Standards
300-170 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.
QUESTION 23
Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks.
B. evaluations in trade publications.
C. use of new and emerging technologies.
D. benefits in comparison to their costs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most fundamental evaluation criterion for the appropriate selection of any security technology is its ability to reduce or eliminate business risks. Investments in security technologies should be based on their overall value in relation to their cost; the value can be demonstrated in terms of risk mitigation. This should take precedence over whether they use new or exotic technologies or how they are evaluated in trade publications.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes?
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Policies
D. Guidelines
300-170 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes.
QUESTION 25
The MOST important factor in planning for the long-term retention of electronically stored business records is to take into account potential changes in:
A. storage capacity and shelf life.
B. regulatory and legal requirements.
C. business strategy and direction.
D. application systems and media.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Long-term retention of business records may be severely impacted by changes in application systems and media. For example, data stored in nonstandard formats that can only be read and interpreted by previously decommissioned applications may be difficult, if not impossible, to recover. Business strategy and direction do not generally apply, nor do legal and regulatory requirements. Storage capacity and shelf life are important but secondary issues.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is characteristic of decentralized information security management across a geographically dispersed organization?
A. More uniformity in quality of service
B. Better adherence to policies
C. Better alignment to business unit needs
D. More savings in total operating costs
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Decentralization of information security management generally results in better alignment to business unit needs. It is generally more expensive to administer due to the lack of economies of scale. Uniformity in quality of service tends to vary from unit to unit.
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position to sponsor the design and implementation of a new security infrastructure in a large global enterprise?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief operating officer (COO)
C. Chief privacy officer (CPO)
D. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The chief operating officer (COO) is most knowledgeable of business operations and objectives. The chief privacy officer (CPO) and the chief legal counsel (CLC) may not have the knowledge of the day- to-day business operations to ensure proper guidance, although they have the same influence within the organization as the COO. Although the chief security officer (CSO) is knowledgeable of what is needed, the sponsor for this task should be someone with far-reaching influence across the organization.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following would be the MOST important goal of an information security governance program?
A. Review of internal control mechanisms
B. Effective involvement in business decision making
C. Total elimination of risk factors
D. Ensuring trust in data
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The development of trust in the integrity of information among stakeholders should be the primary goal of
  information security governance. Review of internal control mechanisms relates more to auditing, while the total elimination of risk factors is not practical or possible. Proactive involvement in business decision making implies that security needs dictate business needs when, in fact, just the opposite is true. Involvement in decision making is important only to ensure business data integrity so that data can be trusted.
QUESTION 29
Relationships among security technologies are BEST defined through which of the following?
A. Security metrics
B. Network topology
C. Security architecture
D. Process improvement models
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security architecture explains the use and relationships of security mechanisms. Security metrics measure improvement within the security practice but do not explain the use and relationships of security technologies. Process improvement models and network topology diagrams also do not describe the use and relationships of these technologies.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 25
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input
to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have
studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants
you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and
impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve

300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project
execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives,
which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management
Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which
of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 32
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his
organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to
help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees
that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is
most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.

B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 34
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
QUESTION 35
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on
several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many
risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high
risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there
any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to
Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are
small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk
events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree
Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine
overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response
that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to
cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
That fact that minor changes in customer demand can become exaggerated as that demand is
communicated up that supply chain is referred to as:
A. embellished effect
B. amplification effect
C. bullwhip effect
D. inflation effect
300-360 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
According to the supply management, one of the most useful ways to develop
Is to begin with an inventory report listing all items in descending order of
dollar spent.
A. Top-down classification
B. Slope classification
C. Gradient classification
D. ABC classification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
A physical stock checking system in which the inventory is divided into groups that are
physically counted at predetermined intervals is called:
A. Continuous inventory
B. Cycle counting
C. Reconciliation
D. None of the above
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The inventory reporting measures format is typically presented in which of the following way?
A. weeks of supply
B. average aggregate inventory
C. inventory turnover
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is NOT the component used to calculate the inventory holding costs?
A. Released rates
B. Invested funds
C. Shrinkage
D. Obsolescence
300-360 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
With what an organization’s inventory values are kept continuously in line with its actual
inventory on hand?
A. Services inventory control system
B. Perpetual inventory control system
C. Periodic inventory control system
D. Temporary inventory control system
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
A term used to describe a ‘one piece flow’ business strategy that allows an organization to
establish a continuous sequencing of product, within a flow process is known as:
A. Flow manufacturing
B. Inventory scheduling
C. Just-in-time scheduling
D. Online scheduling
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
A progressive approach to control inventory is called:

A. Materials inventory
B. Delays in production approach
C. Supplier-managed inventory
D. Depleted control approach
Answer: C
QUESTION: 47
The term most often used to refer to the role of logistics in product returns, source reduction,
recycling, materials substitution, reuse of materials, waster disposal, and refurbishing, repair an
remanufacturing is known as:
A. Multichannel logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Rearrange Materials logistics
D. Switch State art logistics
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
An intermediary who brings the buyer and the seller together is the:
A. Dealer
B. their-party specialist
C. public surplus
D. Broker
Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
Applying the value of existing equipment against the purchase of new is referred to as:
A. Bidding

B. Trade-in
C. Action
D. Equipment sales
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
A lean manufacturing technique in which the transformation of materials is traced from
beginning to end to determine if there is waste in the process is called:
A. Value stream mapping
B. State map technique
C. Fair market value mapping
D. Customized stream mapping
Answer: A
QUESTION: 51
New product ideas fall into following categories except:
A. Breakthrough ideas
B. Incremental ideas
C. Derivative ideas
D. Production ideas
300-360 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
A tool used to develop the technical specifications necessary to meet customer requirements is
called:
A. Quality function deployment
B. Quality forecast
C. Quality Matrix
D. House of Quality

Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
happens when one or more existing competitors realize an opportunity to improve
their position or when they are responding to the pressure from other competitors.
A. Substitute bargaining
B. Antagonism
C. Rivalry
D. Business Conflict
300-360 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 54
A standard of point of reference used in measuring or judging an organization’s performance
according to selected criteria is called:
A. Performance assessment
B. Benchmarking
C. Process revelation
D. None of the above
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55
Which of the following essentially translate an organization’s business plan into an operation
plan?
A. Requirement plan
B. Staffing plan
C. Capital investment plan
D. Services resources

Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The amount of reserve capacity that a firm maintains to handle sudden increases in demand or
temporary losses of production capacity is called:
A. Capacity cushion
B. Capacity capability
C. Capacity staffing
D. Capacity board
Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
The process which begins by understanding the product such as its value, its physical
characteristics such as length, height, width, and weight and its fragility is called:
A. Packaging optimization
B. Product optimization
C. Process Throughput
D. Flood flow gain
300-360 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 58
A practice that involves purchasing professional in the new product or service development
process from its inception is called:
A. Service level professionalism
B. Statement of work flow
C. Early purchasing Improvement
D. Initializing consent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
What is used to obtain general information about products, services or suppliers and is
information request, not binding on either the supplier or the purchaser?
A. Procurement document
B. Solicitation document
C. Target market
D. Qualified product description
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
What involves taking out an investment that will specifically reduce or cancel out the risk in
another investment?
A. Operational strategy
B. Situational factor
C. Hedging strategy
D. Optimization strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
Two back-to-back quarters of negative gross domestic product growth is referred to as:
A. Recession
B. Hunch
C. Nose-dive
D. Obsolescence
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A

300-360 dumps

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