best preparation method to pass the CheckPoint 156-215.80 exam, latest CheckPoint 156-215.80 exam dumps

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Check Point Infinity R80 Training: https://www.checkpoint.com/events/r80-infinity-training/

CheckPoint 156-215.80 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. WebUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartReporter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Choose the Best place to find a Security Management Server backup file named backup_fw, on a Check Point
Appliance.
A. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tgs
B. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tar
C. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backups/backup_fw.tar
D. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
Correct Answer: D
Gaia\\’s Backup feature allows backing up the configuration of the Gaia OS and of the Security Management server
database, or restoring a previously saved configuration. The configuration is saved to a .tgz file in the following
directory:

pass4itsure 156-215.80 exam question q2

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?action=portlets.SearchResultMainActionandeventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk91400

QUESTION 3
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one
of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the
company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see
what the problem may be?
A. Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller
B. Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet
C. Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet
D. Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager\\’s tablet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What SmartEvent component creates events?
A. Consolidation Policy
B. Correlation Unit
C. SmartEvent Policy
D. SmartEvent GUI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT
A. Download Center Web site
B. UserUpdate
C. User Center
D. Check Point DVD
Correct Answer: B
Packages and licenses are loaded into these repositories from several sources:
the Download Center web site (packages)
the Check Point DVD (packages)
the User Center (licenses)
by importing a file (packages and licenses)
by running the cplic command line
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

QUESTION 6
Fill in the blank: RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client
A. Destination
B. Identity
C. Payload
D. Location
Correct Answer: B
How RADIUS Accounting Works with Identity Awareness
RADIUS Accounting gets identity data from RADIUS Accounting Requests generated by the RADIUS accounting client.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62050

QUESTION 7
Where can you trigger a failover of the cluster members?
1.
Log in to Security Gateway CLI and run command clusterXL_admin down.
2.
In SmartView Monitor right-click the Security Gateway member and select Cluster member down.
3.
Log into Security Gateway CLI and run command cphaprob down.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Correct Answer: C
How to Initiate Failover Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

pass4itsure 156-215.80 exam question q7

QUESTION 8
Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However,
in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.
A. Accept; redirect
B. Accept; drop
C. Redirect; drop
D. Drop; accept
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?
A. I have changed this rule
B. Someone else has changed this rule
C. This rule is managed by check point\\’s SOC
D. This rule can\\’t be changed as it\\’s an implied rule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP
address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to
another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway
before shipping it?
1.
Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.
2.
Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.
3.
Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.
4.
Click the Communication button in the Gateway object\\’s General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize
and OK.
5.
Install the Security Policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.
C. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new
products.
D. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
A. write mem
B. show config -f
C. save config -o
D. save configuration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk102234

QUESTION 13
Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____
license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.
A. Formal; corporate
B. Local; formal
C. Local; central
D. Central; local
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

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You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the 156-215.80 exam. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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ISC CSSLP Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network.
Users report that they are unable to log on to the network. Mark finds that accounts are locked out due to multiple
incorrect log on attempts. What is the most likely cause of the account lockouts?
A. Spoofing
B. Brute force attack
C. SYN attack
D. PING attack
Correct Answer: B
Brute force attack is the most likely cause of the account lockouts. In a brute force attack, unauthorized users attempt to
log on to a network or a computer by using multiple possible user names and passwords. Windows 2000 and other
network operating systems have a security feature that locks a user account if the number of failed logon attempts occur
within a specified period of time, based on the security policy lockout settings. Answer: A is incorrect. Spoofing is a
technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email
address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else\\’s IP address to hide
his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the
source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer: C is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers
running on the TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol-level attack that can render a computer\\’s network services unavailable.
A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer: D is incorrect. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo
requests to another computer, it is known as a PING attack.

 

QUESTION 2
There are seven risks responses that a project manager can choose from. Which risk response is appropriate for both
positive and negative risk events?
A. Acceptance
B. Transference
C. Sharing
D. Mitigation
Correct Answer: A
Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and
low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance
response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be
changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance
response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance
response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate
the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they
occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a positive
risk response that shares an opportunity for all parties involved in the risk event. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is
a negative risk event that transfers the risk ownership to a third party, such as vendor, through a contractual
relationship. Answer: D is incorrect. Mitigation is a negative risk event that seeks to lower the probability and/or impact
of a risk event.

 

QUESTION 3
Fill in the blank with the appropriate security mechanism. is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language
construct which handles the occurrence of exceptional events.
A. Exception handling
Correct Answer: A
Exception handling is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct that handles the
occurrence of events. These events occur during the software execution process and interrupt the instruction flow.
Exception handling performs the specific activities for managing the exceptional events.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user\\’s authentication
credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user\\’s data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Correct Answer: C
Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user\\’s authentication credentials be verified by the
database before providing access to that user\\’s data. Answer: D is incorrect. Account lockout implements a limit on the
incorrect password attempts to protect an account from automated password-guessing attacks. Answer: B is incorrect.
Authenticated session allows a user to access more than one access-restricted Web page without re- authenticating
every page. It also integrates user authentication into the basic session model. Answer: A is incorrect. Secure assertion
distributes application-specific sanity checks throughout

 

QUESTION 5
An assistant from the HR Department calls you to ask the Service Hours and Maintenance Slots for your ERP system.
In which document will you most probably find this information?
A. Service Level Agreement
B. Release Policy
C. Service Level Requirements
D. Underpinning Contract
Correct Answer: A
You will most probably find this information in the Service Level Agreement document. Amongst other information, SLA
contains information about the agreed Service Hours and maintenance slots for any particular Service. Service Level
Agreement (frequently abbreviated as SLA) is a part of a service contract where the level of service is formally defined.
In practice, the term SLA is sometimes used to refer to the contracted delivery time (of the service) or performance.
Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the
other is the service provider. This can be a legally binding formal or informal \\’contract\\’. Contracts between the Service
Provider and other third parties are often (incorrectly) called SLAs, as the level of service has been set by the (principal)
customer there can be no \\’agreement\\’ between third parties (these agreements are simply a \\’contract\\’). Operating
Level Agreements or OLA(s) however, may be used by internal groups to support SLA(s). Answer: B is incorrect.
Release Policy is a set of rules for deploying releases into the live operational environment, defining different
approaches for releases depending on their urgency and impact. Answer: C is incorrect. The Service Level
Requirements document contains the requirements for a service from the client viewpoint, defining detailed service level
targets, mutual responsibilities, and other requirements specific to a certain group of customers. Answer: D is incorrect.
Underpinning Contract (UC) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party. In another way, it is an
agreement between the IT organization and an external provider about the delivery of one or more services. The third
party provides services that support the delivery of a service to a customer. The Underpinning Contract defines targets
and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA.

 

QUESTION 6
You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. You want to verify that the build meets its data requirements, and
correctly generates each expected display and report. Which of the following tests will help you to perform the above
task?
A. Performance test
B. Functional test
C. Reliability test
D. Regression test
Correct Answer: B
The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the
verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in
the
subsequent builds. Functional test:
These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates
each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of
each
build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.
B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.
C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper
coding standards.
D. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.
Correct Answer: ABC
The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-
consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should
implement the functions that are defined in the software specification. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden
assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than
a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies
should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it
is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should
use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object
inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and
the minimum number of exit points.

 

QUESTION 8
You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following tools will you use to look outside your own
organization to examine how others achieve their performance levels, and what processes they use to reach those
levels?
A. Benchmarking
B. Six Sigma
C. ISO 9001:2000
D. SEI-CMM
Correct Answer: A
Benchmarking is the tool used by system assessment process to provide a point of reference by which performance
measurements can be reviewed with respect to other organizations. Benchmarking is also recognized as Best Practice
Benchmarking or Process Benchmarking. It is a process used in management and mostly useful for strategic
management. It is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time,
productivity, or quality to another that is widely considered to be an industry standard benchmark or best practice. It
allows organizations to develop plans on how to implement best practice with the aim of increasing some aspect of
performance. Benchmarking might be a onetime event, although it is frequently treated as a continual process in which
organizations continually seek out to challenge their practices. It allows organizations to develop plans on how to make
improvements or adapt specific best practices, usually with the aim of increasing some aspect of performance. Answer:
C is incorrect. The ISO 9001:2000 standard combines the three standards 9001, 9002, and 9003 into one, called 9001.
Design and development procedures are required only if a company does in fact engage in the creation of new
products. The 2000 version sought to make a radical change in thinking by actually placing the concept of process
management front and center (“Process management” was the monitoring and optimizing of a company\\’s tasks and
activities, instead of just inspecting the final product). The ISO 9001:2000 version also demands involvement by upper
executives, in order to integrate quality into the business system and avoid delegation of quality functions to junior
administrators. Another goal is to improve effectiveness via process performance metrics numerical measurement of the
effectiveness of tasks and activities. Expectations of continual process improvement and tracking customer satisfaction
were made explicit. Answer: B is incorrect. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, initially implemented by
Motorola. As of 2009 it enjoys widespread application in many sectors of industry, although its application is not without
controversy. Six Sigma seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the causes of
defects and variability in manufacturing and business processes. It uses a set of quality management methods,
including statistical methods, and creates a special infrastructure of people within the organization (“Black Belts”, “Green
Belts”, etc.) who are experts in these methods. Each Six Sigma project carried out within an organization follows a
defined sequence of steps and has quantified financial targets (cost reduction or profit increase). The often used Six
Sigma symbol is as follows:

pass4itsure CSSLP exam question q8

Answer: D is incorrect. Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) was created by Software Engineering Institute
(SEI). CMMI in software engineering and organizational development is a process improvement approach that provides
organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement. It can be used to guide process
improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization. CMMI can help integrate traditionally separate
organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and
provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. CMMI is now the de facto standard for measuring the
maturity of any process. Organizations can be assessed against the CMMI model using Standard CMMI Appraisal
Method for Process Improvement (SCAMPI).

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following test methods has the objective to test the IT system from the viewpoint of a threat-source and to
identify potential failures in the IT system protection schemes?
A. Security Test and Evaluation (STandE)
B. Penetration testing
C. Automated vulnerability scanning tool
D. On-site interviews
Correct Answer: B

The goal of penetration testing is to examine the IT system from the perspective of a threat-source, and to identify
potential failures in the IT system protection schemes. Penetration testing, when performed in the risk assessment
process, is used to assess an IT system\\’s capability to survive with the intended attempts to thwart system security.
Answer: A is incorrect. The objective of STandE is to ensure that the applied controls meet the approved security
specification for the software and hardware and implement the organization\\’s security policy or meet industry
standards.

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de- obfuscation tool so that it
cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?
A. Preventive transformation
B. Data obfuscation
C. Control obfuscation
D. Layout obfuscation
Correct Answer: A
Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot

 

QUESTION 11
The DARPA paper defines various procedural patterns to perform secure system development practices. Which of the
following patterns does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Hidden implementation
B. Document the server configuration
C. Patch proactively
D. Red team the design
E. Password propagation
Correct Answer: BCD
The following procedural patterns are defined by the DARPA paper in order to perform secure software development
practices: Build the server from the ground up: It includes the following features: Build the server from the ground up.
Identify the default installation of the operating system and applications. Support hardening procedures to remove
unnecessary services. Identify a vulnerable service for ongoing risk management. Choose the right stuff: It defines
guidelines to select right commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components and decide whether to use and build custom
components. Document the server configuration: It supports the creation of an initial configuration baseline and tracks
all modifications made to servers and application configurations. Patch proactively: It supports in applying patches as
soon as they are available rather than waiting until the systems cooperate. Red team the design: It supports an
independent security assessment from the perspective of an attacker in the quality assurance or testing stage. An
independent security assessment is helpful in addressing a security issue before it occurs. Answer: A is incorrect.
Hidden implementation pattern is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to software assurance in
general. Hidden implementation limits the ability of an attacker to distinguish the internal workings of an application.
Answer: E is incorrect. Password propagation is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to aspects
of authentication in a Web application. Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user\\’s
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user\\’s data.

 

QUESTION 12
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that
conceives the risks even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants
to know that what is a residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?
A. It is a risk that remains because no risk response is taken.
B. It is a risk that can not be addressed by a risk response.
C. It is a risk that will remain no matter what type of risk response is offered.
D. It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken.
Correct Answer: D
Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual
risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers
even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent
risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement
about residual risks. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: A is incorrect.
This is not a valid statement about residual risks.

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following processes describes the elements such as quantity, quality, coverage, timelines, and availability,
and categorizes the different functions that the system will need to perform in order to gather the documented mission/
business needs?
A. Human factors
B. Functional requirements
C. Performance requirements
D. Operational scenarios
Correct Answer: B
The functional requirements categorize the different functions that the system will need to perform in order to gather the
documented mission/business needs. The functional requirements describe the elements such as quantity, quality,
coverage, timelines, and availability. Answer: C is incorrect. The performance requirements comprise of speed,
throughput, accuracy, humidity tolerances, mechanical stresses such as vibrations or noises. Answer: A is incorrect.
Human factor consists of factors, which affect the operation of the system or component, such as design space, eye
movement, or ergonomics. Answer: D is incorrect. The operational scenarios provide assistance to the system
designers and form the basis of major events in the acquisition phases, such as testing the products for system
integration. The customer classifies and defines the operational scenarios, which indicate the range of anticipated uses
of system products.

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Summarize:

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You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the CSSLP exam. “CSSLP certification recognizes leading application security skills. It shows employers and peers you have the advanced technical skills and knowledge necessary for authentication, authorization, and auditing throughout the SDLC using best practices, policies, and procedures established by the cybersecurity experts at (ISC)²”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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Exam 70-486: Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-486.aspx

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Design the application architecture (15-20%)
  • Design the build and deployment architecture (10-15%)
  • Design the User Experience (15-20%)
  • Develop the User Experience (15-20%)
  • Troubleshoot and Debug Web Applications (20-25%)
  • Design and Implement Security (15-20%)

Microsoft 70-486 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Customers download videos by using HTTP clients that support various content encodings. You need to configure
caching on the DownloadVideo action to maximize performance. Which attribute should you add?pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The application is configured to use a Startup class.
The /status action must be tested on each check-in to source control.
You need to test the application.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations.
Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
You need to add a method to the ProductController class to meet the exception handling requirements for logging.
Which code segment should you use?pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q3

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that provides instant messaging capabilities to customers. You have
the following requirements:pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q4

You need to design the application to meet the requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure polling from the browser.
B. Implement long-running HTTP requests.
C. Implement WebSockets protocol on the client and the server.
D. Instantiate a MessageChannel object on the client.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
You have been tasked with making sure that the application is configured to make use of a custom role provider, named
CyclingLogRoleProvider. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making changes to the machine.config file.
B. You should consider making changes to the app.config file.
C. You should consider making changes to the web.config file.
D. You should consider making changes to the client.config file.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action.
How should you build the route? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is configured for claims-based authentication by using
Windows Identity Foundation (WIF).
You need to access the claims in the WIF token. Which code segment should you use?
A. Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity;
B. ((IClaimsPrincipal)Thread.CurrentPrincipal).Identities[0].Claims;
C. Thread.CurrentPrincipal;
D. ((IClaimsPrincipal)Thread.CurrentPrincipal).Identities[0].IsAuthenticated;
Correct Answer: B
To Access the Claims
In order to access identity related information, you can run FedUtil. Once you have run FedUtil, your application can
access IClaimsPrincipal and IClaimsIdentity using the standard ASP.NET constructs as shown in the following code
example:
void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
// Cast the Thread.CurrentPrincipal
IClaimsPrincipal icp = Thread.CurrentPrincipal as IClaimsPrincipal;
// Access IClaimsIdentity which contains claims
IClaimsIdentity claimsIdentity = (IClaimsIdentity)icp.Identity;
// Access claims
foreach(Claim claim in claimsIdentity.Claims)
{
}
}
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee517271.aspx

 

QUESTION 8
You have received instructions to make sure that the prerequisites with regards to the ItemId are suitably met. Which of
the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider changing a method of ItemController.
B. You should consider changing a method of ItemProperty.
C. You should consider changing a method of ItemObject.
D. You should consider changing a method of ItemAttribute.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You need to ensure that the transcode.exe utility is installed before the worker role starts.
You have the following markup:pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q9

Which markup segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3, Target 4 and Target 5 to implement the
startup task? To answer, drag the appropriate markup segments to the correct targets. Each markup segments may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q9-2

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The landing page of the application contains over 100
small JPEG images, including many images that have embedded text.
Mobile device users report performance issues when loading the landing page. You debug the application and
determine that the number of HTTP requests is causing the issue.
You need to improve the performance of the landing page.
Solution: Combine images into a single image and use CSS sprites.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that enables users to open Microsoft Excel files.
The current implementation of the ExcelResult class is as follows.pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q11

You need to enable users to open Excel files. You have the following code:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q11-1

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2 and Target 3 to implement the ExecuteResult method?
To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q11-2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q11-3

Target 1: Name: AcceptTypes Synopsis: stringArray = Request.AcceptTypes Return s a String array containing the
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME) types accepted by the client. You can use this property to determine
whether a client can accept certain response types, including application types such as Word or Excel, which are
supported only by Internet Explorer. Target 2, Target 3: Example: Response.AddHeader(“content-disposition”,
“attachment; filename=MyExcelFile.xls”); Response.ContentType = “application/ms-excel”; Reference: Export data to
Excel file with ASP.NET MVC 4 C# is rendering into view http://stackoverflow.com/questions/16346227/export-data-to-excel-file-with-asp-net-mvc-4-c-sharp-is-rendering-into-view

 

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
The application provides a RESTful API for third-party applications. This API updates the information for a contact by
embedding the information in the URL of an HTTP POST.
You need to save the Contact type when third-party applications use the EditContact method.
Which code segment should you use? {Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)pass4itsure 70-486 exam question q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: BC
Basics of RESTful services:
REST stands for Representational State Transfer, it is a simple stateless architecture that runs over HTTP where each
unique URL is representation of some resource. There are four basic design principles which should be followed when
creating RESTful service:
* Use HTTP methods (verbs) explicitly and in consistent way to interact with resources (Uniform Interface), i.e. to
retrieve a resource use GET, to create a resource use POST, to update a resource use PUT/PATCH, and to remove a
resource use DELETE.Etc.

 

QUESTION 13
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that uses forms authentication. The application uses SQL queries
that display customer order data.
You need to prevent all SQL injection attacks against the application.
How should you secure the queries?
A. Implement parameterization.
B. Pattern check the input.
C. Filter out prohibited words in the input.
D. Escape single quotes on string-based input parameters.
Correct Answer: A
With most development platforms, parameterized statements that work with parameters can be used (sometimes called
placeholders or bind variables) instead of embedding user input in the statement. A placeholder can only store a value
of the given type and not an arbitrary SQL fragment. Hence the SQL injection would simply be treated as a strange (and
probably invalid) parameter value.

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Candidates for this exam are professional developers who use Microsoft Visual Studio 2017 and ASP.NET to design and develop web solutions. Candidates should have a minimum of three to five years of experience developing Microsoft ASP.NET MVC–based solutions and knowledge of Microsoft Azure Web Apps.

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  • Designing and developing web applications in an ASP.NET MVC model
  • Planning and designing user interaction solutions based on business requirements
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  • Developing and deploying to multi-tier environments, including Azure
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How To Pass Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate 1z0-071 Certification Exam

Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate

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Associated Certification Paths

  • Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Associate
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  • Oracle Database SQL Certified Associate

The latest Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate 1z0-071 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1

Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.) 

A. INSERT 

B. UPDATE 

C. SELECT 

D. DESCRIBE 

E. DELETE 

F. RENAME 

Correct Answer: D 

The only SQL*Plus command in this list : DESCRIBE. It cannot be used as SQL command. This command returns a

description of tablename, including all columns in that table, the datatype for each column and an indication of whether

the column permits storage of NULL values. 

Incorrect answer: 

A. INSERT is not a SQL*PLUS command 

B. UPDATE is not a SQL*PLUS command 

C. SELECT is not a SQL*PLUS command 

E. DELETE is not a SQL*PLUS command 

F. RENAME is not a SQL*PLUS command 

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 7 

 

QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true regarding working with dates? (Choose two.) 

A. The RR date format automatically calculates the century from the SYSDATE function but allows the session user to

enter the century. 

B. The RR date format automatically calculates the century from the SYSDATE function and does not allow a session

user to enter the century. 

C. The default internal storage of dates is in character format. 

D. The default internal storage of dates is in numeric format. 

Correct Answer: AD 

 

QUESTION 3

Examine the description of the EMP_DETAILS table given below:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q3

Which two statements are true regarding SQL statements that can be executed on the EMP_DETAIL TABLE?
A. An EMP_IMAGE column cannot be included in the ORDER BY clause.
B. You can alter the table to include the NOT NULL constraint on the EMP_IMAGE column.
C. You cannot add a new column to the table with LONG as the data type.
D. An EMP_IMAGE column can be included in the GROUP BY clause.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4

Evaluate the following SQL statement: Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q4-1

A. It returns an error because the BETWEEN operator cannot be used in the HAVING clause.
B. It returns an error because WHERE and HAVING clauses cannot be used in the same SELECT statement.
C. It returns an error because WHERE and HAVING clauses cannot be used to apply conditions on the same column.
D. It executes successfully.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Examine the commands used to create DEPARTMENT_DETAILS and COURSE_DETAILS tables:pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q5

You want to generate a list of all department IDs that do not exist in the COURSE_DETAILS table.
You execute the SQL statement:

pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q5-1

What is the outcome?
A. It fails because the join type used is incorrect.
B. It executes successfully and displays the required list.
C. It executes successfully but displays an incorrect list.
D. It fails because the ON clause condition is not valid.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about sequences crated in a single instance Oracle database?
A. The numbers generated by an explicitly defined sequence can only be used to insert data in one table.
B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database.
C. CURRVAL is used to refer to the most recent sequence number that has been generated for a particular sequence.
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, it can be increased by using the ALTER SEQUENCE
statement.
E. When the database instance shuts down abnormally, sequence numbers that have been cached but not used are
available again when the instance is restarted.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. MOD : returns the quotient of a division.
B. TRUNC : can be used with NUMBER and DATE values.
C. CONCAT : can be used to combine any number of values.
D. SYSDATE : returns the database server current date and time.
E. INSTR : can be used to find only the first occurrence of a character in a string.
F. TRIM : can be used to remove all the occurrences of a character from a string.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
Which three SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three.)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$99G999D00\\’) FROM DUAL
B. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$9,999V99\\’) FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$0G000D00\\’) FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$99,999D99\\’) FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$99G999D99\\’) FROM DUAL
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 9
View the exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table. (Choose two.)pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q9

You executed this SQL statement:
SELECT first_name, department_id, salary FROM employees ORDER BY department_id, first_name, salary desc;
Which two statements are true regarding the result? (Choose two.)
A. The values in the SALARY column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in
the DEPARTMENT_ID and FIRST_NAME column.
B. The values in the FIRST_NAME column would be returned in ascending order for all employees having the same
value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column.
C. The values in the SALARY column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in
the DEPARTMENT_ID column.
D. The values in all columns would be returned in descending order.
E. The values in the FIRST_NAME column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same
value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibits and examine PRODUCTS and SALES tables.
Exhibit 1pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q10

Exhibit 2

pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q10-1

You issue the following query to display product name the number of times the product has been sold:

pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q10-2

What happens when the above statement is executed?
A. The statement executes successfully and produces the required output.
B. The statement produces an error because a subquery in the FROM clause and outer-joins cannot be used together.
C. The statement produces an error because the GROUP BY clause cannot be used in a subquery in the FROM
clause.
D. The statement produces an error because ITEM_CNT cannot be displayed in the outer query.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table which is not partitioned and not an index-organized table.
(Choose two.)pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q11

Evaluate this SQL statement:
ALTER TABLE emp
DROP COLUMN first_name;
Which two statements are true?
A. The FIRST_NAME column can be dropped even if it is part of a composite PRIMARY KEY provided the CASCADE
option is added to the SQL statement.
B. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided at least one column remains in the table.
C. The FIRST_NAME column would be dropped provided it does not contain any data.
D. The drop of the FIRST_NAME column can be rolled back provided the SET UNUSED option is added to the SQL
statement.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table.pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q12

Which UPDATE statement is valid?
A. UPDATE orders SET order_date = \\’12-mar-2007\\’, order_total IS NULL WHERE order_id = 2455;
B. UPDATE orders SET order_date = \\’12-mar-2007\\’, AND order_total = TO_NUMBER(NULL) WHERE order_id =
2455;
C. UPDATE orders SET order_date = \\’12-mar-2007\\’, order_total = NULL WHERE order_id = 2455;
D. UPDATE orders SET order_date = TO_DATE(\\’12-mar-2007\\’,\\’dd-mon-yyyy\\’), SET order_total = TO_NUMBER
(NULL) WHERE order_id = 2455;
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q13

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

pass4itsure 1z0-071 exam question q13-1

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because subqueries cannot be used with the CASE expression.
B. It shows COST_REMARK for all the promos in the promo category `TV\\’.
C. It shows COST_REMARK for all the promos in the table.
D. It produces an error because the subquery gives an error.
Correct Answer: C

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About the exam:

The CompTIA Project+ examination is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-sized projects.
The successful candidate will have the knowledge and skills required to:

Manage the project life cycle
Ensure appropriate communication
Manage resources and stakeholders
Maintain project documentation

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Project+ PK0-003 practice test free of charge (50Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following MUST be clearly defined in a project charter?
A. Quality
B. Scope
C. Action items
D. WBS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between an open-ended and a close-ended problem
statement?
A. An open-ended problem statement leads to multiple solutions, while a close-ended one has limited
solutions.
B. An open-ended problem statement has a low success rate, while a close-ended problem statement has
a high success rate.
C. In open-ended problem statements, well defined resources cannot be allocated to the project, while a
close-ended one allows for defined resources.
D. An open-ended problem statement expands the scope of the project, while a close-ended one keeps
the project in scope.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A project team member, Joe, has completed his project work. Although the project is not completed yet,
Joe has been assigned by the PMO director to a new project. Which of the following describes the
organization structure Joe works in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Project based
D. Strong Matrix
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is used to provide a functional description of the efforts which are required in order
to accomplish a task?
A. Gantt chart
B. PERT
C. GERT
D. WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A project manager is entering the list of a project’s activities with their estimated begin and end time to
visualize which activities overlap and when the project is scheduled to end. Which of the following is the
project manager building?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Critical PathD. PERT chart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The project manager is sequencing a set of activities. They discover that some of the activities may or may
not occur based on the outcome of other activities. Which of the following is BEST suited in this situation to
show the activities’ logical relationship?
A. Gantt
B. ADM
C. CCB
D. CCM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between bottom up and top down cost estimation?
A. Bottom up leads to a more accurate cost estimate than top down because it is performed by subject
matter experts
B. Top down leads to a more accurate cost estimate because it is performed by upper management with
direct access to budget information
C. Bottom up leads to a less accurate cost estimate because it is breaks down the task into smaller
subtasks where some tasks may not have a cost
D. Both top down and bottom up are equally accurate estimation of a project’s total cost because they
both refer to resources assigned by the project sponsor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following purchasing processes should a project team use to ensure that the work will be
done per company specifications, while selecting the overall cheapest provider?
A. RFI
B. RFP
C. RFC
D. RFQ
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the MAIN purposes of a kick-off meeting is to:
A. Assign and review roles and responsibilities to the project team.
B. Allow the project sponsor to introduce the project manager to the team.
C. Review the project definition document and make the appropriate changes.
D. Ensure project team members communicate amongst each others.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
After the ground breaking at a new construction site, the pile driving operation comes to a full stop due to
the nature of the terrain. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The project communication plan must be updated and a stakeholder meeting must be scheduled.
B. The project manager must manage the new issue as the project schedule could be delayed.
C. The project manager must implement conflict resolution and review the resource requirement.D. The project scope statement must be reviewed and the project manager must prepare a performance
report.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A new software solution is being deployed. The customer realizes that an important piece of the software
must be purchased in order for the project to be successful. Which of the following is TRUE about this
scenario?
A. The new piece of software will most likely expand the scope of the project therefore a new scope
statement must be written.
B. The current project must be completed and a new project can be started to implement the additional
software.
C. Quality management metrics are affected therefore the project manager should review the quality of the
project.
D. Project schedule may be affected and the project manager must follow the change control process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
While performing a scheduled walkthrough at a construction site, the customer points out a discrepancy.
Which of the following is the FIRST step that should be taken before submitting a change control form?
A. Consult the project sponsor
B. Identify the change
C. Perform a feasibility study
D. Perform impact analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project team member has identified a required change to one of their assigned tasks. The change would
alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Additional company employees have been assigned to the project. Which of the following will be affected?
A. The timeline may be positively affected at the expense of the project cost.
B. This change does not affect the triple constraint because the additional employees are already on the
company payroll.
C. The quality of the product will improve but it will add more time to the project to train the new
employees.
D. Total project cost will be reduced because the project can now be completed sooner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they allocate additional resources to a
set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. CrashingB. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The project manager is reviewing the Pareto chart to identify if the life cycle of a deliverable is producing
software bugs. Which of the following are represented in the chart? (Select TWO).
A. Number of work units affected by the bug
B. Percentage of bug types occurring
C. Software bug counts
D. Root cause of bug occurrence
E. Affect of the bug occurrence
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
The project manager wants to report to the stakeholders to date project’s cost performance. If the total of
completed work to date is $200,000 and the actual cost is $210,000, which of the following is the cost
variance?
A. -5%
B. 5%
C. -$10,000
D. $10,000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Some of the stakeholders are losing interest in the project because of its length. Which of the following
should the project manager implement in this situation?
A. Remove the stakeholders who are losing interest to ensure successful completion of the project.
B. Limit communication with the stakeholders to the bare minimum and only report on the progress and
not the issues.
C. Implement a concise and reoccurring communication plan which focuses on the project goal and
accomplishments.
D. Review the project goal with the stakeholder and allow them to make the appropriate changes to keep
them interested.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A project’s deliverable has been assigned to a team located in a different country. Although it is understood
that daily reports are due by close of business every weekday, the external team’s reports are consistently
being delivered after business hours. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. The external project team did not understand the report requirements due to the language barrier.
B. External project team members are always allowed to deliver reports late.
C. The project manager has not taken into consideration the time zone difference.
D. Cultural differences between the project manager and the external team were not considered.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following should be used when determining the details of a project component or scopeentry?
A. WBS Dictionary
B. Project Management Plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Project Charter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
During the course of a project, key stakeholders have requested new requirements after the business
requirements document has already been signed off. Which of the following should have been performed
earlier in the project in order to deal with this situation?
A. Ensure that stakeholders understand that once requirements are approved the scope cannot be
changed.
B. Develop a clear communications flow between the project and business stakeholders.
C. Perform multiple rounds of requirements solicitation before permanently locking down the scope.
D. Agree on a process to deal with project change requests.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following scheduling algorithms establishes floats, durations, and paths between work
schedule activities?
A. AON
B. PERT
C. CPM
D. GERT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
A draft structure for a risk tracking sheet has been provided below:
1. Risk identifier
2. Risk status
3. Risk description
4. Mitigation steps
5. Mitigation status
Which of the following should be ADDED to the risk tracking sheet?
A. Risk rating
B. Stakeholder risk tolerance
C. Revised project schedule
D. Risk matrix
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is BEST suited for assigning resources to WBS tasks?
A. WBS defines functional teams which should then be mapped to project scope items
B. WBS contains the project schedule which should be used to determine timing of when to engage
functional teams
C. WBS defines the description of the end result delivered by the projectD. WBS defines activities and deliverables that can be mapped to functional teams
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following can be used as a quality metric when performing quality planning?
A. Quality control
B. Cost benefit analysis
C. Perform preventative actions
D. Quality assurance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
A project manager confronts a team member about the use of personal instant messaging during working
hours. This is an example of which of the following conflict resolution techniques?
A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Compromise
D. Avoiding
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which of the following are components in the communications management planning process?
A. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, project implementation
B. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, closing
C. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, initiating
D. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, manage stakeholders
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
An analysis of the cost-benefit trade-offs for a project should be included as part of the:
A. Work plan
B. Risk register
C. Project charter
D. Quality plan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A project manager of a particular project receives formal notification that a vendor has gone out of
business. New vendors with similar products at similar costs have been identified. Which of the following
should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Initiate RFQs to qualified vendors, update the project management plan and communicate the issue
with the project sponsor following the project communications plan.
B. Undertake a make-or-buy decision analysis; communicate the issue with the project sponsor following
the project communications plan.
C. Call a stakeholder meeting following the project communications plan to urgently review the project
schedule; update the project management plan.
D. Communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan, call a
project team meeting to discuss alternatives and update the project management plan.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
In a Gantt chart, how are milestones displayed?
A. An activity with zero day duration
B. An activity with one day duration
C. Activity-on-node with a finish-to-finish precedence
D. End-to-end bar graph showing the time to complete a task
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
When would a project manager have a closure meeting? (Select THREE).
A. Stage completion
B. Task completion
C. Document completion
D. Project cancellation
E. Project completion
F. Vendor cancellation
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
Before a change request is presented to the change control board, which of the following should the
project manager do?
A. Suggest the board study the cost of the change.
B. Evaluate the affect on all other parts of the project.
C. Review the change request with the project sponsor.
D. Request team member input on the value of the change.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following should a project manager do for a team member who does not speak the same
language?
A. Hire a translator to assist the team member in communicating.
B. Communicate with the team member using translation software.
C. Send the team member to training on the desired language.
D. Ask for a replacement team member that speaks the same language.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using boxes to represent the project
activities that are connected by lines to show their dependencies. Which of the following tools is the project
manager using?
A. AOA
B. WBS
C. ADM
D. PDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
A conflict has developed among two project team members. The project manager reiterates the areas of
agreement and avoids the areas of disagreement. Which of the following BEST describes this conflict
resolution technique?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Avoiding
D. Negotiating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which of the following directly utilize the WBS? (Select TWO).
A. Communication plan
B. Monte Carlo technique
C. Activity estimation
D. Variance analysis
E. Resource assignment
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 37
— Exhibit
pass4itsure PK0-003 question
— Exhibit —
Click on the exhibit button. Which of the following is the critical path?
A. Start-A-B-E-F-end
B. Start-A-B-C-end
C. Start-A-B-E-C-end
D. Start-A-D-end
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
— Exhibit
pass4itsure PK0-003 question
— Exhibit —
Click on the Exhibit button. Which of the following is the float of the path: start-A-D-end?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Five
D. Nineteen
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which of the following is the BEST method to avoid staffing conflict between resource managers and
project managers?
A. Allow team members to enter the project as best fits their schedule.
B. Ask the project sponsor for team member assignments.
C. Claim the best department resources before the project starts.
D. Formally request team members early.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
After a change control board meeting, which of the following actions should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Notify the requester of the verdict.
B. Review the impact of proposed change.
C. Update the project scope statement.
D. Document the specific change request.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 41
A statement of work (SOW) has been heavily revised by the stakeholders. Which of the following should beimplemented to make it easier to determine how many times the document has been revised?
A. Version control
B. A document revision date
C. Approval signatures from each stakeholder
D. A change request
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which of the following human resource outputs would a project manager use to determine a team
member’s skills?
A. Role
B. Accountability
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT that it:
A. is managed by consensus.
B. is a temporary endeavor to create a unique product or service.
C. is limited by human and financial resources.
D. adheres to the triple constraint.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which of the following techniques can a project manager use to assist with quality planning? (Select
THREE).
A. Peer review
B. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
C. Inspection
D. Performance Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
E. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
F. Benchmarking
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 45
Reviewing the results of a control chart, the project manager finds the production samples had results
inside both the upper control limit and the lower control limit. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action for the project manager based on this information?
A. The project manager should identify potential new production teams to obtain different results.
B. The project manager should create a report to outline the results for client review and request a more
generous range between limits.
C. The project manager should stop production until the processes are reviewed in full for identification of
flaws.
D. The project manager should continue following the existing process, including the measuring of
samples for tracking.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 46
A project manager has a project with staff in four different countries. When generating the resource
management plan, which of the following should be considered FIRST?
A. Reviewing holiday and vacation schedule with all team members.
B. Getting the email address of all the employees.
C. Locating each employee on the map in the office.
D. Understanding the international country code of all the team members.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
An approved change request has delayed the project start date without modifying the completion date. The
project sponsor has requested the project manager to pursue an option with the LOWEST initial cost.
Which of the following methods should the project manager consider?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Crashing
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 48
The project manager has constructed a graphical chart categorically representing the frequency of each
data occurrence. This is an example of which of the following tools?
A. Histogram
B. Gantt chart
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Control chart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
The project office has created change request templates that must be used on any corporate project.
Which of the following BEST describes this action?
A. Regulation
B. Best practice
C. Guideline
D. Standard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
The project manager has received an approved change request. Which of the following actions should the
project manager take NEXT?
A. Schedule a meeting with the change advisory board to discuss the impact of the change
B. Perform a probability and impact assessment on the approved change
C. Hold a team meeting to ensure the change is immediately implemented
D. Develop a plan to incorporate the change into the project
Correct Answer: D

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following
should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system
not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following MUST be done when imaging a Windows Server that will be used as a template?
A. Remove software
B. Run Windows Updates
C. Update drivers
D. Sysprep
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application
located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port.
Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A technician manages a server that contains sensitive data. The server currently has two hard drives, one hosting the operating system and other generic files and
the second hosting sensitive data. The technician needs to implement a technology that would guard against data loss for only the sensitive data, while adding
only one additional hard drive. Which of the following should the technician implement to avoid reformatting any drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When planning for redundant power sources in a server deployment, which of the following should be purchased? (Select TWO).
A. RAID controllers
B. Multiple UPSs
C. Redundant cooling
D. Dual NICs
E. Redundant power supplies
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an advantage of RAID 0?
A. Mirrors data
B. Redundancy
C. Speed
D. Automatic hot spare
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is installing a server with sixteen 1 TB drives. They want the benefit of both speed and redundancy. Which of the following RAID configurations
should be used?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3D. RAID 50
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following types of UPS would be used with equipment that is very sensitive to power fluctuations?
A. Offline / Standby
B. Line interactive
C. Rackmount
D. Online / Double Conversion
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When a technician left the server room Monday evening everything was operational. When the technician returned Tuesday morning, the front bezel was off of the
mail server, and it had been powered off. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?
A. TCP/IP settings
B. RAID configuration
C. Whether the power cord is attached
D. Server room access log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following server roles allows a server to translate fully qualified domain names into IP addresses?
A. Directory services server
B. NTP server
C. DHCP server
D. DNS server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A technician has just finished installing a new server into a server rack. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to complete the installation
documentation?
A. Update drivers, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update), create server baseline, create a new network diagram, update change management
procedures
B. Create server baseline, label server, store vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams, update asset tracking information
C. Create server baseline, assign server roles, install tape drive, delete network diagram, label server, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update)
D. Install applications on server, install external drives, toss vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A small business has had unauthorized people enter their server room and damage their servers. Which of the following locks for the door would BEST prevent
unauthorized people from accessing the server room?
A. Biometric
B. Keypad
C. Barcode
D. Key lock
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting a lack of Internet connectivity affecting their entire office. The technician suspects the issue is with their Internet Service Provider
failing to provide service. Which of the following command line tools should the technician use to BEST test this theory?
A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to install a 2U server into a rack. Which of the following shows how much space, in height, needs to be available for the server to fit in the
rack?
A. 1.75 inches (4.45 cm)
B. 2.5 inches (6.35 cm)
C. 3.5 inches (8.89 cm)
D. 4.25 inches (10.8 cm)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is intended for only has a dual channel capable
motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform?
A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs
B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the additional module will be for parityC. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard
D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following processor technologies is typically supported on current enterprise class UNIX servers but not enterprise class Windows Servers?
A. RISC
B. CISC
C. Multi-threading
D. 64-bit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
An administrator needs to connect servers to the Fiber Channel SAN. Which of the following should the administrator install in the servers to allow this
connection?
A. Riser
B. HBA
C. SCSI card
D. SAS card
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions for everyone to “Modify” but users report
they are unable to create or delete documents.
Which of the following is the cause?
A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions
B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group
C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder
D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the
server back into Windows?
A. Update the time and date in the BIOS.
B. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller.
C. Update the firmware to the latest version.
D. Configure IPMI on the new board.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. Immediately after the update, the server begins to report `file not found’ errors for a mission
critical application. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted.
B. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files.
C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly.
D. The update has quarantined files that are false positives.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following are the BEST tools to test connectivity between two hosts? (Select TWO).
A. netstat
B. nslookup
C. ipconfig
D. traceroute
E. pathping
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
An administrator is overseeing the backup process and tapes utilized by a former employee. Which of the following is the BEST way for the administrator to
proceed?
A. Utilize differential backups.
B. Verify the tape drives are functional.
C. Verify that the backups are functional.
D. Utilize incremental backups.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
A staff member reports that they cannot access the shared folder on the network; however, other staff members are reporting that they can access the shared
folder. Which of the following is the BEST way to identify the problem?A. The administrator should monitor all traffic between the staff member and the server.
B. The administrator should reconfigure the RAID configuration to allow more space.
C. The administrator should map a drive using the net use command.
D. The administrator should allow the staff member to use a USB drive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage for mission critical application data. Fault tolerance and performance are the most important considerations.
Cost is not a factor at all. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice to meet the criteria for the storage array?
A. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives
B. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives
C. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives
D. RAID 0 with eight 250GB hard drives
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds?
A. Ultra2 SCSI
B. SATA
C. Ultra320 SCSI
D. SAS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization?
A. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary.
B. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained.
C. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic.
D. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST likely to cause a server power supply fan to fail but allows the power supply to still be functional?
A. Dust
B. Power Surge
C. Excessive humidity
D. High temperatures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A server has lost communication to its drives located on a fiber channel SAN. An administrator notices that the indicator lights on both the HBA and the SAN
switch are not lit. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of the problem? (Select THREE).
A. Failed HBA
B. Failed switch port
C. Faulty fiber cable
D. Faulty driver
E. Failed hard drives
F. Faulty configuration
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 30
A Windows server has rebooted by itself several times. There are several functioning non- Windows servers in the same rack that are connected to the same
uninterruptible power supply (UPS). Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the reboots?
A. The UPS is malfunctioning.
B. The user traffic to the server is too high.
C. A BSOD is occurring.
D. The non-Windows servers cannot be located on the same UPS as the Windows server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
A server has had a drive fail in its storage RAID set. The administrator swaps the drive with a replacement and the RAID set does not automatically start to rebuild
the replaced drive. Which of the following utilities would MOST likely be used to initialize the rebuilding of the replacement drive?
A. Net use
B. Array management
C. Fdisk
D. Disk Management Plug-in
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens. Which of the following is theNEXT step?
A. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode.
B. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration.
C. Reboot the server again.
D. Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
The staff is not able to access a database server. The server has an ‘Operating System not found’ error and is set to boot from a fiber channel SAN. All other
database servers are set to boot from the SAN and access the same switch and data as this database server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of
the problem?
A. The SAN is offline
B. Fiber channel switch
C. Multiple failed drives in the SAN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
After a critical service failure occurs the server keeps rebooting every fifteen minutes not giving an administrator enough time to troubleshoot the failure. Which of
the following does the administrator need to do to allow enough time to work on the system to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Modify boot.ini file
B. Disable automatic reboot on service
C. Press F6 at boot up
D. Clear cache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which of the following is an example of a private IP address?
A. 191.168.5.4
B. 111.12.53.2
C. 5.2.4.4
D. 169.254.15.28
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which of the following ports should be allowed through a firewall for Telnet to function?
A. 23
B. 25
C. 50
D. 110
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Given four drives, which of the following RAID levels will allow for the GREATEST performance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which of the following RAID levels would be appropriate given two drives and a need for fault tolerance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which of the following MOST correctly describes a hot spare?
A. A drive assigned to an array that will only hold parity information used for rebuilding a failed array drive.
B. An external hard drive to which all data is replicated to for recovery in the event of a failure.
C. A drive assigned to an array that will automatically be used to rebuild a failed array drive.
D. An extra drive purchased and stored in the parts cabinet to replace failed drives.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which of the following ports MUST be open on the firewall to allow remote desktop connection and remote assistance traffic through?A.21
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 8080
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
As a best practice, when should the server be rebooted to apply the reboot required patches?
A. During scheduled downtime
B. Once a year
C. As soon as the patches are finished installing
D. At the same time every day
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
When installing a server in a rack, which of the following locations describes where in the rack a server should be installed?
A. On the very bottom U of the rack, with the UPS above the server
B. In the middle of the rack to help balance the rack
C. Closest to the bottom of the rack, above heavier equipment
D. On the very top U of the rack, with the UPS directly below it
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Which of the following is the BEST way to make sure the network printer is automatically installed when the user logs on?
A. Log onto the user’s computer as a local administrator and install the printer.
B. Make sure the user has permission to print to the printer.
C. Create and implement a logon script.
D. After the user has logged on, install the printer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which of the following server types stores users’ home directory folders?
A. Application
B. File
C. Directory services
D. Print
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45
Which of the following cable types should be used to achieve Gigabit Ethernet speed?
A. CAT5
B. CAT3
C. CAT6
D. Thicknet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 46
After performing the initial steps in installing the server OS from a DVD-ROM, the server reboots and goes back into the setup wizard. Which of the following is the
MOST likely cause for this problem?
A. The DVD-ROM drive has failed.
B. An installation file copied from the DVD to the hard drive is corrupt.
C. Faulty OS installation DVD.
D. Incorrect boot sequence in the BIOS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
When disposing of data, which of the following should be considered FIRST?
A. Company policy requirements
B. Local legal requirements
C. Storage requirements
D. Disposal requirements
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 48
Which of the following ports does RDP use by default?
A. 23
B. 902
C. 1677
D. 3389
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 49
Which of the following can be used when installing the OS without a boot disk?
A. ZFS
B. VMFS
C. PXE
D. PBX
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 50
The administrator has just installed a new memory module into the server. Now, the server is not showing the new memory. Which of the following should the
administrator perform FIRST?
A. System reboot
B. Reseat the memory
C. Install the latest firmware
D. Install the latest driver
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 51
Management has asked the server technician to deploy fourteen new servers with newly-released operating systems in the virtual environment for testing
purposes. Which of the following is the FASTEST way to do this?
A. Create a template of an existing server and deploy the fourteen images from that server.
B. Create a server template, and deploy all fourteen servers from this template.
C. Create one server, create a backup image, and restore thirteen servers from the image.
D. Create each server individually.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Which of the following should be done FIRST when troubleshooting a problem?
A. Test the theory to determine the cause
B. Perform a root cause analysis
C. Establish a plan of action
D. Document outcomes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53
A datacenter director implements a new security measure in response to multiple equipment thefts from the datacenter. The new security measure requires
people entering or leaving the datacenter to go through an extra secure area. Once entering the area people must present two forms of authentication to leave.
Which of the following security measures does this describe?
A. Mantrap
B. RFID cards
C. Defense in depth
D. Biometrics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 54
A system administrator needs to provision storage for a 200GB database. The database must have extremely low seek time. Which of the following is the BEST
solution?
A. A JBOD
B. A RAID 50 array
C. A NAS
D. A single SSD
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 55
Which of the following defines memory interleaving?
A. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache
B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank
C. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor
D. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 56
When troubleshooting a problem on a server, which of the following is the industry best practice?
A. Reseat all components
B. Replace the memory and CPU
C. Test each component one at a time
D. Reinstall TCP/IP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 57
Security patches that were issued to address a security flaw in the database server software have failed to install. All other OS security patches applied
successfully. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the failure?
A. Database patches typically require a reinstall of the database server software.
B. The server was unavailable during the patch window.
C. The OS patches and database patches cannot be deployed together.
D. The account used does not have permission to patch the database software.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 58
Which of the following protocols define the rules and processes used to transmit and receive block storage applications over TCP/IP?
A. iSCSI
B. VoIP
C. Distributed Applications over IP
D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 59
Which of the following is the BEST to use when securing fiber cables and preventing damage?
A. Zip ties
B. Twist ties
C. Black electrical tape
D. Velcro cable straps
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 60
An administrator has been instructed to add four additional drives to a server configured with RAID 5. The server is using 146GB drives for the data. Without
changing the configuration, how much additional data space would be available if the administrator purchased 300GB drives and added them to the existing
array?
A. 438GB
B. 584GB
C. 900GB
D. 1200GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 61
Which of the following describes the difference between SATA and PATA?
A. SATA operates on a single channel.
B. PATA devices have three channels.
C. PATA devices have their own channel whereas SATA does not.
D. SATA devices have their own channel whereas PATA does not.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 62
When troubleshooting a problem on a server, which of the following is the industry best practice?
A. Reseat all components
B. Replace the memory and CPU
C. Test each component one at a time
D. Reinstall TCP/IP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 63
An administrator is required to maintain space for 750GB of user data. Which of the following is the BEST option available to the administrator?
A. Create a RAID 5 array using five 200GB disks.
B. Create a JBOD using four 200GB disks.
C. Create a RAID 1 array using six 200GB disks.
D. Create a RAID 5 array using three 200GB disks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 64
Users can only access external websites. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem?
A. The incorrect gateway address is being provided to the workstation.
B. DHCP is not providing workstations with the proper subnet mask.
C. The DNS cache was cleared.
D. The internal zone was deleted.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 65
An administrator needs to configure a server to restrict mail traffic to an application server for security reasons. Which of the following techniques can be used to
manage this?
A. PAT
B. ACLs
C. Subnet masking
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 66
Which of the following is the MOST critical environmental consideration when determining the location of a server?
A. Ease of physical access
B. Cable management
C. Height from the floor
D. Temperature of the room
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 67
A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily, and needs to be stored for 20 years. Which of the following backup media is the
BEST solution for archiving the server data?
A. Tape
B. SAN
C. Flash
D. Optical
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 68
Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company’s LAN?
A. Tape library
B. NAS
C. Optical jukebox
D. SAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 69
Users report slow performance when saving files on a server with a RAID 5 array, but not when reading files from that server. Which of the following is the MOST
likely cause?
A. Mismatched drives
B. Bad sectors
C. Cache battery failure
D. Disk drive failure
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Ann is the data owner of financial records for a company. She has requested that she have the ability to assign read and write privileges to her folders. The network administrator is tasked with setting up the initial access control system and
handing Ann’s administrative capabilities. Which of the following systems should be deployed?
A. Role-based
B. Mandatory
C. Discretionary
D. Rule-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A password history value of three means which of the following?
A. Three different passwords are used before one can be reused.
B. A password cannot be reused once changed for three years.
C. After three hours a password must be re-entered to continue.
D. The server stores passwords in the database for three days.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A security administrator has installed a new KDC for the corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is the security administrator planning to implement across the organization?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. XTACACS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following authentication services requires the use of a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) server in order to complete the authentication process?
A. TACACS+
B. Secure LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An organization has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of numbers that automatically change every 30 seconds. Which of the following type of
authentication mechanism is this?
A. TOTP
B. Smart card
C. CHAP
D. HOTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The security department has implemented a new laptop encryption product in the environment. The product requires one user name and password at the time of boot up and also another password after the operating system has finished
loading. This setup is using which of the following authentication types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Single factor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A company hired Joe, an accountant. The IT administrator will need to create a new account for
Joe. The company uses groups for ease of management and administration of user accounts.
Joe will need network access to all directories, folders and files within the accounting department.
Which of the following configurations will meet the requirements?
A. Create a user account and assign the user account to the accounting group.
B. Create an account with role-based access control for accounting.
C. Create a user account with password reset and notify Joe of the account creation.
D. Create two accounts: a user account and an account with full network administration rights.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following access controls enforces permissions based on data labeling at specific levels?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Separation of duties access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Role based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Ann was reviewing her company’s event logs and observed several instances of GUEST accessing the company print server, file server, and archive database. As she continued to investigate, Ann noticed that it seemed to happen at random
intervals throughout the day, but mostly after the weekly automated patching and often logging in at the same time. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this issue?
A. Enabling time of day restrictions
B. Disabling unnecessary services
C. Disabling unnecessary accounts
D. Rogue machine detection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator implements SELinux on a production web server. After implementing this, the web server no longer serves up files from users’ home directories. To rectify this, the administrator creates a new policy as the root user. This is
an example of which of the following? (Select TWO).A. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is role-based access control
B. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is rule-based access control
C. The policy added by the root user is mandatory access control
D. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is mandatory access control
E. The policy added by the root user is role-based access control
F. The policy added by the root user is rule-based access control
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 13
Jane, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining authentication services to the company’s management team. The company runs an active directory infrastructure. Which of the following solutions BEST relates to the host
authentication protocol within the company’s environment?
A. Kerberos
B. Least privilege
C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A. Credit card and PIN
B. Username and password
C. Password and PIN
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following authentication services uses a ticket granting system to provide access?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following was based on a previous X.500 specification and allows either unencrypted authentication or encrypted authentication through the use of TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following types of security services are used to support authentication for remote users and devices?
A. Biometrics
B. HSM
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A hacker has discovered a simple way to disrupt business for the day in a small company which relies on staff working remotely. In a matter of minutes the hacker was able to deny remotely working staff access to company systems with a
script. Which of the following security controls is the hacker exploiting?
A. DoS
B. Account lockout
C. Password recovery
D. Password complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A technician is reviewing the logical access control method an organization uses. One of the senior managers requests that the technician prevent staff members from logging on during nonworking days. Which of the following should the
technician implement to meet managements request?
A. Enforce Kerberos
B. Deploy smart cards
C. Time of day restrictions
D. Access control lists
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is mainly used for remote access into the network?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following protocols uses TCP instead of UDP and is incompatible with all previous versions?
A. TACACS
B. XTACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
The system administrator is tasked with changing the administrator password across all 2000 computers in the organization. Which of the following should the system administrator implement to accomplish this task?A. A security group
B. A group policy
C. Key escrow
D. Certificate revocation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
The IT department has setup a website with a series of questions to allow end users to reset their own accounts. Which of the following account management practices does this help?
A. Account Disablements
B. Password Expiration
C. Password Complexity
D. Password Recovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
One of the most basic ways to protect the confidentiality of data on a laptop in the event the device is physically stolen is to implement which of the following?
A. File level encryption with alphanumeric passwords
B. Biometric authentication and cloud storage
C. Whole disk encryption with two-factor authentication
D. BIOS passwords and two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A security analyst implemented group-based privileges within the company active directory. Which of the following account management techniques should be undertaken regularly to ensure least privilege principles?
A. Leverage role-based access controls.
B. Perform user group clean-up.
C. Verify smart card access controls.
D. Verify SHA-256 for password hashes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An internal auditing team would like to strengthen the password policy to support special characters. Which of the following types of password controls would achieve this goal?
A. Add reverse encryption
B. Password complexity
C. Increase password length
D. Allow single sign on
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which of the following is best practice to put at the end of an ACL?
A. Implicit deny
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Implicit allow
D. SNMP string
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Ann, a security administrator, wishes to replace their RADIUS authentication with a more secure protocol, which can utilize EAP. Which of the following would BEST fit her objective?
A. CHAP
B. SAML
C. Kerberos
D. Diameter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?
A. WPA2-PSK
B. WEP-PSK
C. CCMP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?
A. Time of day restrictions
B. Group based privileges
C. User assigned privileges
D. Domain admin restrictions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A security technician is working with the network firewall team to implement access controls at the company’s demarc as part of the initiation of configuration management processes. One of the network technicians asks the security
technician to explain the access control type found in a firewall. With which of the following should the security technician respond?
A. Rule based access control
B. Role based access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
A security administrator has been tasked to ensure access to all network equipment is controlled by a central server such as TACACS+. This type of implementation supports which of the following risk mitigation strategies?
A. User rights and permissions review
B. Change management
C. Data loss prevention
D. Implement procedures to prevent data theft
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAMLC. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
The security manager wants to unify the storage of credential, phone numbers, office numbers, and address information into one system. Which of the following is a system that will support the requirement on its own?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
LDAP and Kerberos are commonly used for which of the following?
A. To perform queries on a directory service
B. To store usernames and passwords for Federated Identity
C. To sign SSL wildcard certificates for subdomains
D. To utilize single sign-on capabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
A user reports being unable to access a file on a network share. The security administrator determines that the file is marked as confidential and that the user does not have the appropriate access level for that file. Which of the following is
being implemented?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Discretionary access control
C. Rule based access control
D. Role based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Users report that they are unable to access network printing services. The security technician checks the router access list and sees that web, email, and secure shell are allowed. Which of the following is blocking network printing?
A. Port security
B. Flood guards
C. Loop protection
D. Implicit deny
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
Ann has recently transferred from the payroll department to engineering. While browsing file shares, Ann notices she can access the payroll status and pay rates of her new coworkers. Which of the following could prevent this scenario from
occurring?
A. Credential management
B. Continuous monitoring
C. Separation of duties
D. User access reviews
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
A security administrator is tackling issues related to authenticating users at a remote site. There have been a large number of security incidents that resulted from either tailgating or impersonation of authorized users with valid credentials. The
security administrator has been told to implement multifactor authentication in order to control facility access. To secure access to the remote facility, which of the following could be implemented without increasing the amount of space
required at the entrance?
A. MOTD challenge and PIN pad
B. Retina scanner and fingerprint reader
C. Voice recognition and one-time PIN token
D. One-time PIN token and proximity reader
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the
BEST tool to use?
A. Password history
B. Password logging
C. Password cracker
D. Password hashing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which of the following controls mitigates the risk of Matt, an attacker, gaining access to a company network by using a former employee’s credential?
A. Account expiration
B. Password complexity
C. Account lockout
D. Dual factor authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 45
An organizations’ security policy requires that users change passwords every 30 days. After a security audit, it was determined that users were recycling previously used passwords. Which of the following password enforcement policies
would have mitigated this issue?
A. Password history
B. Password complexity
C. Password length
D. Password expiration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
The systems administrator notices that many employees are using passwords that can be easily guessed or are susceptible to brute force attacks. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this risk?
A. Enforce password rules requiring complexity.
B. Shorten the maximum life of account passwords.
C. Increase the minimum password length.
D. Enforce account lockout policies.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
When Ann an employee returns to work and logs into her workstation she notices that, several desktop configuration settings have changed. Upon a review of the CCTV logs, it is determined that someone logged into Ann’s workstation.
Which of the following could have prevented this from happening?
A. Password complexity policy
B. User access reviews
C. Shared account prohibition policy
D. User assigned permissions policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
Which of the following allows a network administrator to implement an access control policy based on individual user characteristics and NOT on job function?A. Attributes based
B. Implicit deny
C. Role based
D. Rule based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
Which of the following presents the STRONGEST access control?
A. MAC
B. TACACS
C. DAC
D. RBAC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Ann is a member of the Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions:
Ann:read/write
Sales Group:read
IT Group:no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 51
A security administrator implements access controls based on the security classification of the data and need-to-know information. Which of the following BEST describes this level of access control?
A. Implicit deny
B. Role-based Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Controls
D. Least privilege
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 52
A group policy requires users in an organization to use strong passwords that must be changed every 15 days. Joe and Ann were hired 16 days ago. When Joe logs into the network, he is prompted to change his password; when Ann logs
into the network, she is not prompted to change her password. Which of the following BEST explains why Ann is not required to change her password?
A. Ann’s user account has administrator privileges.
B. Joe’s user account was not added to the group policy.
C. Ann’s user account was not added to the group policy.
D. Joe’s user account was inadvertently disabled and must be re-created.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 53
Which of the following authentication services should be replaced with a more secure alternative?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS
C. TACACS+
D. XTACACS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 54
Which of the following security concepts can prevent a user from logging on from home during the weekends?
A. Time of day restrictions
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Implicit deny
D. Common access card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 55
Several employee accounts appear to have been cracked by an attacker. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to mitigate password cracking attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Increase password complexity
B. Deploy an IDS to capture suspicious logins
C. Implement password history
D. Implement monitoring of logins
E. Implement password expiration
F. Increase password length
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 56
A security technician has been asked to recommend an authentication mechanism that will allow users to authenticate using a password that will only be valid for a predefined time interval. Which of the following should the security technician
recommend?
A. CHAP
B. TOTP
C. HOTP
D. PAP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 58
Human Resources suspect an employee is accessing the employee salary database. The administrator is asked to find out who it is. In order to complete this task, which of the following is a security control that should be in place?
A. Shared accounts should be prohibited.
B. Account lockout should be enabled
C. Privileges should be assigned to groups rather than individuals
D. Time of day restrictions should be in use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 59
Which of the following is a BEST practice when dealing with user accounts that will only need to be active for a limited time period?
A. When creating the account, set the account to not remember password history.
B. When creating the account, set an expiration date on the account.
C. When creating the account, set a password expiration date on the account.D. When creating the account, set the account to have time of day restrictions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 60
A company requires that a user’s credentials include providing something they know and something they are in order to gain access to the network. Which of the following types of authentication is being described?
A. Biometrics
B. Kerberos
C. Token
D. Two-factor
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 61
An administrator discovers that many users have used their same passwords for years even though the network requires that the passwords be changed every six weeks. Which of the following, when used together, would BEST prevent
users from reusing their existing password? (Select TWO).
A. Length of password
B. Password history
C. Minimum password age
D. Password expiration
E. Password complexity
F. Non-dictionary words
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 62
RADIUS provides which of the following?
A. Authentication, Authorization, Availability
B. Authentication, Authorization, Auditing
C. Authentication, Accounting, Auditing
D. Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 63
In order for network monitoring to work properly, you need a PC and a network card running in what mode?
A. Launch
B. Exposed
C. Promiscuous
D. Sweep
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 64
Users require access to a certain server depending on their job function. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate strategy for securing the server?
A. Common access card
B. Role based access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 65
A recent audit of a company’s identity management system shows that 30% of active accounts belong to people no longer with the firm. Which of the following should be performed to help avoid this scenario? (Select TWO).
A. Automatically disable accounts that have not been utilized for at least 10 days.
B. Utilize automated provisioning and de-provisioning processes where possible.
C. Request that employees provide a list of systems that they have access to prior to leaving the firm.
D. Perform regular user account review / revalidation process.
E. Implement a process where new account creations require management approval.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 66
A company with a US-based sales force has requested that the VPN system be configured to authenticate the sales team based on their username, password and a client side certificate.
Additionally, the security administrator has restricted the VPN to only allow authentication from the US territory. How many authentication factors are in use by the VPN system?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 67
A network administrator has a separate user account with rights to the domain administrator group. However, they cannot remember the password to this account and are not able to login to the server when needed. Which of the following is
MOST accurate in describing the type of issue the administrator is experiencing?
A. Single sign-on
B. Authorization
C. Access control
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 68
A user attempting to log on to a workstation for the first time is prompted for the following information before being granted access: username, password, and a four-digit security pin that was mailed to him during account registration. This is
an example of which of the following?
A. Dual-factor authentication
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Single factor authentication
D. Biometric authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 69
After a recent internal audit, the security administrator was tasked to ensure that all credentials must be changed within 90 days, cannot be repeated, and cannot contain any dictionary words or patterns. All credentials will remain enabled
regardless of the number of attempts made. Which of the following types of user account options were enforced? (Select TWO).
A. Recovery
B. User assigned privileges
C. Lockout
D. Disablement
E. Group based privileges
F. Password expiration
G. Password complexity
Correct Answer: FG

QUESTION 70
Which of the following is the difference between identification and authentication of a user?
A. Identification tells who the user is and authentication tells whether the user is allowed to logon to a system.
B. Identification tells who the user is and authentication proves it.
C. Identification proves who the user is and authentication is used to keep the users data secure.
D. Identification proves who the user is and authentication tells the user what they are allowed to do.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 71
Sara, a security manager, has decided to force expiration of all company passwords by the close of business day. Which of the following BEST supports this reasoning?
A. A recent security breach in which passwords were cracked.
B. Implementation of configuration management processes.
C. Enforcement of password complexity requirements.
D. Implementation of account lockout procedures.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 72
Which of the following security benefits would be gained by disabling a terminated user account rather than deleting it?
A. Retention of user keys
B. Increased logging on access attempts
C. Retention of user directories and files
D. Access to quarantined files
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 73
Ann, a security administrator at a call center, has been experiencing problems with users intentionally installing unapproved and occasionally malicious software on their computers. Due to the nature of their jobs, Ann cannot change their
permissions. Which of the following would BEST alleviate her concerns?
A. Deploy a HIDS suite on the users’ computers to prevent application installation.
B. Maintain the baseline posture at the highest OS patch level.
C. Enable the pop-up blockers on the users’ browsers to prevent malware.
D. Create an approved application list and block anything not on it.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 74
A security administrator has deployed all laptops with Self Encrypting Drives (SED) and enforces key encryption. Which of the following represents the greatest threat to maintaining data confidentiality with these devices?
A. Full data access can be obtained by connecting the drive to a SATA or USB adapter bypassing the SED hardware.
B. A malicious employee can gain the SED encryption keys through software extraction allowing access to other laptops.
C. If the laptop does not use a Secure Boot BIOS, the SED hardware is not enabled allowing full data access.
D. Laptops that are placed in a sleep mode allow full data access when powered back on.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 75
A company plans to expand by hiring new engineers who work in highly specialized areas. Each engineer will have very different job requirements and use unique tools and applications in their job. Which of the following is MOST appropriate
to use?
A. Role-based privileges
B. Credential management
C. User assigned privileges
D. User access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 76
Account lockout is a mitigation strategy used by Jane, the administrator, to combat which of the following attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Dictionary
D. Brute force
E. Privilege escalation
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 77
Which of the following is an authentication and accounting service that uses TCP for connecting to routers and switches?
A. DIAMETER
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 78
A recent audit has discovered that at the time of password expiration clients are able to recycle the previous credentials for authentication. Which of the following controls should be used together to prevent this from occurring? (Select TWO).
A. Password age
B. Password hashing
C. Password complexity
D. Password history
E. Password length
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 79
An auditing team has found that passwords do not meet best business practices. Which of the following will MOST increase the security of the passwords? (Select TWO).
A. Password Complexity
B. Password Expiration
C. Password Age
D. Password Length
E. Password History
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 80
Which of the following protocols provides for mutual authentication of the client and server?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Radius
C. Secure LDAP
D. Biometrics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 81
Ann, the security administrator, wishes to implement multifactor security. Which of the following should be implemented in order to compliment password usage and smart cards?
A. Hard tokens
B. Fingerprint readers
C. Swipe badge readers
D. Passphrases
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 82
Which of the following services are used to support authentication services for several local devices from a central location without the use of tokens?
A. TACACS+
B. Smartcards
C. Biometrics
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 83
After Ann, a user, logs into her banking websites she has access to her financial institution mortgage, credit card, and brokerage websites as well. Which of the following is being described?
A. Trusted OS
B. Mandatory access control
C. Separation of duties
D. Single sign-on
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 84
Which of the following is an authentication method that can be secured by using SSL?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 85
A small company has a website that provides online customer support. The company requires an account recovery process so that customers who forget their passwords can regain access.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to implement this process?
A. Replace passwords with hardware tokens which provide two-factor authentication to the online customer support site.
B. Require the customer to physically come into the company’s main office so that the customer can be authenticated prior to their password being reset.
C. Web-based form that identifies customer by another mechanism and then emails the customer their forgotten password.
D. Web-based form that identifies customer by another mechanism, sets a temporary password and forces a password change upon first login.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 86
Which of the following common access control models is commonly used on systems to ensure a “need to know” based on classification levels?
A. Role Based Access Controls
B. Mandatory Access Controls
C. Discretionary Access Controls
D. Access Control List
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 87
A customer has provided an email address and password to a website as part of the login process. Which of the following BEST describes the email address?
A. Identification
B. Authorization
C. Access control
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 88
Speaking a passphrase into a voice print analyzer is an example of which of the following security concepts?
A. Two factor authentication
B. Identification and authorization
C. Single sign-on
D. Single factor authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 89
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement two-factor authentication within the company. Which of the following would fulfill the CISO’s requirements?
A. Username and password
B. Retina scan and fingerprint scan
C. USB token and PIN
D. Proximity badge and token
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 90
A security administrator is concerned about the strength of user’s passwords. The company does not want to implement a password complexity policy. Which of the following can the security Administrator implement to mitigate the risk of an
online password attack against users with weak passwords?
A. Increase the password length requirements
B. Increase the password history
C. Shorten the password expiration period
D. Decrease the account lockout time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 91
Which of the following protocols is MOST likely to be leveraged by users who need additional information about another user?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 92
A security administrator is reviewing the below output from a password auditing tool:
[email protected]
@pW1.
S3cU4
Which of the following additional policies should be implemented based on the tool’s output?
A. Password age
B. Password history
C. Password length
D. Password complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 93
In order for Sara, a client, to logon to her desktop computer, she must provide her username, password, and a four digit PIN. Which of the following authentication methods is Sara using?
A. Three factor
B. Single factor
C. Two factor
D. Four factor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 94
A new intern was assigned to the system engineering department, which consists of the system architect and system software developer’s teams. These two teams have separate privileges. The intern requires privileges to view the system
architectural drawings and comment on some software development projects. Which of the following methods should the system administrator implement?A. Group based privileges
B. Generic account prohibition
C. User access review
D. Credential management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 95
Joe Has read and write access to his own home directory. Joe and Ann are collaborating on a project, and Joe would like to give Ann write access to one particular file in this home directory. Which of the following types of access control
would this reflect?
A. Role-based access control
B. Rule-based access control
C. Mandatory access control
D. Discretionary access control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 96
A security administrator must implement a system that will support and enforce the following file system access control model:
FILE NAMESECURITY LABEL
Employees.docConfidential
Salary.xlsConfidential
OfficePhones.xlsUnclassified
PersonalPhones.xlsRestricted
Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. White and black listing
B. SCADA system
C. Trusted OS
D. Version control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 97
In Kerberos, the Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) is used for which of the following?
A. Identification
B. Authorization
C. Authentication
D. Multifactor authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 98
Employee badges are encoded with a private encryption key and specific personal information.
The encoding is then used to provide access to the network. Which of the following describes this access control type?
A. Smartcard
B. Token
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 99
Which of the following relies on the use of shared secrets to protect communication?
A. RADIUS
B. Kerberos
C. PKI
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 100
A system administrator is configuring UNIX accounts to authenticate against an external server. The configuration file asks for the following information DC=ServerName and DC=COM. Which of the following authentication services is being
used?
A. RADIUS
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 101
Which of the following is a measure of biometrics performance which rates the ability of a system to correctly authenticate an authorized user?
A. Failure to capture
B. Type II
C. Mean time to register
D. Template capacity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 102
During an audit, the security administrator discovers that there are several users that are no longer employed with the company but still have active user accounts. Which of the following should be performed?
A. Account recovery
B. Account disablement
C. Account lockouts
D. Account expiration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 103
ABC company has a lot of contractors working for them. The provisioning team does not always get notified that a contractor has left the company. Which of the following policies would prevent contractors from having access to systems in
the event a contractor has left?
A. Annual account review
B. Account expiration policy
C. Account lockout policy
D. Account disablement
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 104
A company wants to ensure that all credentials for various systems are saved within a central database so that users only have to login once for access to all systems. Which of the following would accomplish this?
A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Smart card access
C. Same Sign-On
D. Single Sign-On
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 105
Which of the following techniques enables a highly secured organization to assess security weaknesses in real time?
A. Access control lists
B. Continuous monitoring
C. Video surveillance
D. Baseline reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 106
A network administrator, Joe, arrives at his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following
policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 107
Joe, a network administrator, is able to manage the backup software console by using his network login credentials. Which of the following authentication services is the MOST likely using?
A. SAML
B. LDAP
C. iSCSI
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 108
Pete, a security auditor, has detected clear text passwords between the RADIUS server and the authenticator. Which of the following is configured in the RADIUS server and what technologies should the authentication protocol be changed
to?
A. PAP, MSCHAPv2
B. CHAP, PAP
C. MSCHAPv2, NTLMv2
D. NTLM, NTLMv2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 109
A technician wants to implement a dual factor authentication system that will enable the organization to authorize access to sensitive systems on a need-to-know basis. Which of the following should be implemented during the authorization
stage?
A. Biometrics
B. Mandatory access control
C. Single sign-on
D. Role-based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 110
Which of the following practices reduces the management burden of access management?
A. Password complexity policies
B. User account audit
C. Log analysis and review
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 111
An organization’s security policy states that users must authenticate using something you do. Which of the following would meet the objectives of the security policy?
A. Fingerprint analysis
B. Signature analysis
C. Swipe a badge
D. Password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 112
The company’s sales team plans to work late to provide the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) with a special report of sales before the quarter ends. After working for several hours, the team finds they cannot save or print the reports.
Which of the following controls is preventing them from completing their work?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Role-based access control
C. Time of Day access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 113
A network administrator uses an RFID card to enter the datacenter, a key to open the server rack, and a username and password to logon to a server. These are examples of which of the following?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Single factor authentication
C. Separation of duties
D. Identification
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 114
A system administrator has noticed that users change their password many times to cycle back to the original password when their passwords expire. Which of the following would BEST prevent this behavior?
A. Assign users passwords based upon job role.
B. Enforce a minimum password age policy.
C. Prevent users from choosing their own passwords.
D. Increase the password expiration time frame.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 115
Which of the following BEST describes using a smart card and typing in a PIN to gain access to a system?
A. Biometrics
B. PKI
C. Single factor authentication
D. Multifactor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 116
During the information gathering stage of a deploying role-based access control model, which of the following information is MOST likely required?
A. Conditional rules under which certain systems may be accessed
B. Matrix of job titles with required access privileges
C. Clearance levels of all company personnel
D. Normal hours of business operation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 117
Which of the following passwords is the LEAST complex?
A. MyTrain!45
B. [email protected]!!
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]#8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 118
Which of the following should be done before resetting a user’s password due to expiration?
A. Verify the user’s domain membership.
B. Verify the user’s identity.
C. Advise the user of new policies.
D. Verify the proper group membership.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 119
Which of the following is an authentication service that uses UDP as a transport medium?
A. TACACS+
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 120
Ann works at a small company and she is concerned that there is no oversight in the finance department; specifically, that Joe writes, signs and distributes paycheques, as well as other expenditures. Which of the following controls can she
implement to address this concern?
A. Mandatory vacations
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Least privilege
D. Separation of duties
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 121
A recent review of accounts on various systems has found that after employees’ passwords are required to change they are recycling the same password as before. Which of the following policies should be enforced to prevent this from
happening? (Select TWO).
A. Reverse encryption
B. Minimum password age
C. Password complexity
D. Account lockouts
E. Password history
F. Password expiration
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 122
Which of the following types of authentication solutions use tickets to provide access to various resources from a central location?
A. Biometrics
B. PKI
C. ACLs
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 123
Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 124
The security administrator notices a user logging into a corporate Unix server remotely as root. Which of the following actions should the administrator take?
A. Create a firewall rule to block SSH
B. Delete the root account
C. Disable remote root logins
D. Ensure the root account has a strong password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 125
Which of the following types of authentication packages user credentials in a ticket?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 126
An organization is implementing a password management application which requires that all local administrator passwords be stored and automatically managed. Auditors will be responsible for monitoring activities in the application by
reviewing the logs. Which of the following security controls is the BEST option to prevent auditors from accessing or modifying passwords in the application?
A. Time of day restrictions
B. Create user accounts for the auditors and assign read-only access
C. Mandatory access control
D. Role-based access with read-only
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 127
A new network administrator is setting up a new file server for the company. Which of the following would be the BEST way to manage folder security?
A. Assign users manually and perform regular user access reviews
B. Allow read only access to all folders and require users to request permission
C. Assign data owners to each folder and allow them to add individual users to each folder
D. Create security groups for each folder and assign appropriate users to each group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 128
A user ID and password together provide which of the following?
A. Authorization
B. Auditing
C. Authentication
D. Identification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 129
A file on a Linux server has default permissions of rw-rw-r–. The system administrator has verified that Ann, a user, is not a member of the group owner of the file. Which of the following should be modified to assure that Ann has read access
to the file?
A. User ownership information for the file in question
B. Directory permissions on the parent directory of the file in question
C. Group memberships for the group owner of the file in question
D. The file system access control list (FACL) for the file in question
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 130
An insurance company requires an account recovery process so that information created by an employee can be accessed after that employee is no longer with the firm. Which of the following is the BEST approach to implement this
process?
A. Employee is required to share their password with authorized staff prior to leaving the firm
B. Passwords are stored in a reversible form so that they can be recovered when needed
C. Authorized employees have the ability to reset passwords so that the data is accessible
D. All employee data is exported and imported by the employee prior to them leaving the firm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 131
A network inventory discovery application requires non-privileged access to all hosts on a network for inventory of installed applications. A service account is created by the network inventory discovery application for accessing all hosts.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for granting the account non-privileged access to the hosts?
A. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the users group on the hosts
B. Add the account to the Domain Administrator group
C. Add the account to the Users group on the hosts
D. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the Power Users group on the hosts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 132
A supervisor in the human resources department has been given additional job duties in the accounting department. Part of their new duties will be to check the daily balance sheet calculations on spreadsheets that are restricted to the
accounting group. In which of the following ways should the account be handled?
A. The supervisor should be allowed to have access to the spreadsheet files, and their membership in the human resources group should be terminated.
B. The supervisor should be removed from the human resources group and added to the accounting group.
C. The supervisor should be added to the accounting group while maintaining their membership in the human resources group.
D. The supervisor should only maintain membership in the human resources group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 133
An information bank has been established to store contacts, phone numbers and other records.
An application running on UNIX would like to connect to this index server using port 88. Which of the following authentication services would this use this port by default?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS+
C. Radius
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 134
A user has forgotten their account password. Which of the following is the BEST recovery strategy?
A. Upgrade the authentication system to use biometrics instead.
B. Temporarily disable password complexity requirements.
C. Set a temporary password that expires upon first use.
D. Retrieve the user password from the credentials database.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 135
Ann has taken over as the new head of the IT department. One of her first assignments was to implement AAA in preparation for the company’s new telecommuting policy. When she takes inventory of the organizations existing network
infrastructure, she makes note that it is a mix of several different vendors. Ann knows she needs a method of secure centralized access to the company’s network resources. Which of the following is the BEST service for Ann to implement?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 136
The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 137
The IT department has setup a share point site to be used on the intranet. Security has established the groups and permissions on the site. No one may modify the permissions and all requests for access are centrally managed by the
security team. This is an example of which of the following control types?
A. Rule based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. User assigned privilege
D. Discretionary access control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 138
A company has 5 users. Users 1, 2 and 3 need access to payroll and users 3, 4 and 5 need access to sales. Which of the following should be implemented to give the appropriate access while enforcing least privilege?
A. Assign individual permissions to users 1 and 2 for payroll. Assign individual permissions to users 4 and 5 for sales. Make user 3 an administrator.
B. Make all users administrators and then restrict users 1 and 2 from sales. Then restrict users 4 and 5 from payroll.
C. Create two additional generic accounts, one for payroll and one for sales that users utilize.
D. Create a sales group with users 3, 4 and 5. Create a payroll group with users 1, 2 and 3.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 139
Which of the following is an important implementation consideration when deploying a wireless network that uses a shared password?
A. Authentication server
B. Server certificate
C. Key length
D. EAP method
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 140
For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the dropdown choices.
Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.
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QUESTION 141
For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the drop down choices.
Select the appropriate authentication type for the following items:
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[100% Valid Microsoft Questions] Latest Upload Microsoft 70-743 Dumps PDF MCSA Exam Video Question Certification Online (100+ Questions) 1-11

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Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments

  • Install, upgrade, and migrate servers and workloads
  • Install and configure Nano Server
  • Create, manage, and maintain images for deployment

Implement Storage Solutions

  • Implement server storage
  • Implement data deduplication

Implement Hyper-V

  • Install and configure Hyper-V
  • Configure virtual machine (VM) settings
  • Configure Hyper-V storage
  • Configure Hyper-V networking

Implement Windows Containers

  • Deploy Windows containers
  • Manage Windows containers

Implement High Availability

  • Implement high availability and disaster recovery options in Hyper-V
  • Implement failover clustering
  • Implement Storage Spaces Direct
  • Manage failover clustering
  • Manage VM movement in clustered nodes

Implement Domain Name System (DNS)

  • Install and configure DNS servers
  • Implement and Maintain IP Address Management (IPAM)

Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions

  • Implement virtual private network (VPN) and DirectAccess solutions

Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure

  • Implement high performance network solutions
  • Determine scenarios and requirements for implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN)

Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

  • Install and configure domain controllers

Implement identity federation and access solutions

  • Install and configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Implement Web Application Proxy (WAP)

Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
70-743 dumps
You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network List Manager Policies are security settings that you can use to configure different aspects of how networks are listed and displayed on one computer or on many computers. Network List Manager Policies are not related to DNSSEC.

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the registration.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B. From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C. From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D. From IPv4, create a new filter.
E. From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F. From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G. From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H. From Scope1, create a reservation.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
70-743 dumps
You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will
attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The Docker daemon runs on Server1.
You need to ensure that members of a security group named Docker Administrators can administer Docker. What should you do?
A. Run theSet-Service cmdlet.
B. Modify the Security settings of Dockerd.exe.
C. Edit the Daemon.json file.
D. Modify the Security settings of Docker.exe.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon. On VM1, you have a container network that uses transparent mode. You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP. What should you do?
A. On VM1, run docker network connect.
B. On Server1, run docker network connect.
C. On VM1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter 璏acAddressSpoofing On.
D. On Server1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter ?MacAddressSpoofing On.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If the container host is virtualized, and you wish to use DHCP for IP assignment, you must enable MACAddressSpoofing.
PS C:\> Get-VMNetworkAdapter -VMName ContainerHostVM | Set-VMNetworkAdapter – MacAddressSpoofing On
The command needs to be run on the Hyper-V host.

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 and VM1 run Windows Server 2016. The settings for VM1 are configured as shown in the exhibit below.
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You need to ensure that you can use the Copy-VMFile cmdlet on Server1 to copy files from VM1. Solution: You need to enable the Data Exchange integration service for VM1. Does this meet the goal?
A. YES
B. NO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
70-743 dumps
You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export- DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
70-743 dumps
You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You add a computer to subnet1. The computer has an IP address of 10.10.0.129 Web1 receives a request from the new computer and sends a response. What should you do?
A. 10.10.0.129
B. 10.10.0.224
C. 131.107.0.223
D. 172.16.128.222
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to deploy several shielded virtual machines on Server1. You deploy a Host Guardian on a new server. You need to ensure that Server1 can host shielded virtual machines.
What should you do first?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
70-743 exam Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You discover that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with Server1 over the network. You need to ensure that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with each other only. The solution must prevent VM1 and VM2 from communicating with Server1.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Enable-VMSwitchExtention
B. Set-NetNeighbor
C. Set-VMSwitch
D. Remove-VMSwitchTeamMember
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The virtual switch needs to be configured as an “Private” switch.

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT). Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology. Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.

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Pass4itsure Free Citrix 1Y0-301 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to create a device collection of new vGPU-enabled virtual desktops in Provisioning Services. The collection needs to be made available as part of an existing machine catalog in Citrix Studio. Which wizard should the engineer run to accomplish this task?
A. Import Device Wizard
B. XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C. Create Machine Catalog Wizard
D. Provisioning Services Configuration Wizard
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A XenDesktop deployment with 200 virtual desktops has a host connection to a single XenServer pool configured for thin provisioning. A Citrix Engineer has been instructed to implement IntelliCache. Which steps must the engineer take to meet the requirements stated in the scenario?
A. Modify the existing host connection and enable IntelliCache.
B. Create a new resource using the existing host connection and enable IntelliCache.
C. Delete the existing resource, create a new one with the same name and enable IntelliCache.
D. Delete the existing host connection, create a new connection to the same pool and enable IntelliCache.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which step can a Citrix Engineer take to reduce logon times when using Citrix Profile Management?
A. Use offline files
B. Use Personal vDisk
C. Disable profile streaming
D. Implement folder redirection
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer selected the Provisioning Services write cache option `Cache on server persistent\’ for a vDisk. The engineer needs to ensure that users are NOT interrupted if a Provisioning Services server fails. What should the engineer configure to enable high availability (HA) on the Provisioning Services servers?
A. Place the write cache on a DFS-R share.
B. Toggle HA in the Provisioning Services database.
C. Change the write cache location to cache on the device.
D. Copy the write cache from one server to the second server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Where should a Citrix Engineer set up a restart schedule for a pool of Server OS machines?
A. Policy within Citrix Studio
B. Delivery Group properties
C. Virtual machine properties
D. Machine catalog properties
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Machine catalogs may __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. only be mapped to one Delivery Group
B. be assigned to an Active Directory group
C. only contain one type of operating system
D. contain a mix of image management methods
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which PowerShell cmdlet will reset StoreFront to the initial factory settings once the StoreFront server is removed from an existing server group?
A. Clear-DSConfiguration
B. Clear-WebConfiguration
C. Remove-SFServiceMetadata
D. Remove-SFServerFromCluster
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which policy option allows for advanced printer options for large industrial printers while keeping drivers to a minimum
and accounting for multiple printer models in use?
A. Use only printer model specific drivers.
B. Use automatic installation of in-box printer drivers.
C. Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable.
D. Change the universal driver preference to PCL5c, EMF, XPS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: Users in an environment are NOT logging off gracefully. A Citrix Engineer notices that an executable is still
running in the user context. What should the engineer do to ensure graceful logoff from hosted applications?
A. Disable session lingering.
B. Disable connection leasing.
C. Modify LogoffCheckSysModules in the registry.
D. Modify Citrix Profile Manager folder redirect settings.
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which mode should a database be configured for when using a SQL mirrored solution with Provisioning Services?
A. High-performance mode (Synchronous)
B. High-performance mode (Asynchronous)
C. High-safety mode with a witness (Synchronous)
D. High-safety mode with a witness (Asynchronous)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: After using evaluation licensing to explore XenDesktop, a Citrix Engineer installs valid Enterprise licenses on the Citrix License Server. The engineer confirms that the licenses show correctly in the license console. A few weeks later, users in the environment report that they are receiving an error message when logging into Desktop OS machines that states the evaluation license is about to expire. What should the engineer do to correct this issue?
A. Select the correct product edition in Citrix Studio.
B. Delete the evaluation license and restart the License service.
C. Reallocate the production license with the FQDN of the License Server.
D. Reinstall the production licenses on the License Server and restart the License service.
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to set up printers for users in a newly installed XenDesktop environment with default
parameters. Users in the environment will access hosted resources for PCs. These users will have printing access to two printers: Printer A and Printer B. Printer A is their default printer. Which printer(s) will be available to the users in an ICA session?
A. Neither
B. Printer A
C. Printer B
D. Both printers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which keyword should a Citrix Engineer use to launch the locally installed version of a hosted application when it is available?
A. Auto
B. Prefer
C. Primary
D. Featured
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which feature should a Citrix Engineer implement to ensure that client devices do NOT connect directly to back-end components?
A. ICA Proxy
B. StoreFront
C. URL Rewrite
D. Secure Ticket Authority (STA)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How should a Citrix Engineer configure a hosted application so that only a subset of users within an existing Delivery Group are able to access the hosted application?
A. Configure the \’Prefer\’ keyword.
B. Configure Limit Visibility to the target users.
C. Create an HDX policy based on the user group.
D. Publish the application to only the subset of users.
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Scenario: A corporate security policy prohibits the creation of domain accounts unless absolutely necessary. During the
deployment of XenDesktop, a Citrix Engineer created a new SQL site database. Which account type should the engineer use to grant permission on the SQL site configuration database for production use?
A. SQL account
B. Domain service account
C. Local account on Delivery Controllers
D. Delivery Controller computer accounts
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A Citrix Engineer is in the process of setting up a remote access solution using self-signed certificates. To help ensure a secure remote connection, the engineer must install a Root certificate on the __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. endpoint device
B. StoreFront server
C. Domain Controllers
D. Delivery Controllers
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is using the XenApp Services Support URL to enable support for legacy clients. The services URL is configured with explicit authentication. The engineer needs to configure StoreFront to support pass through for a new group of legacy clients. How could the engineer configure pass-through authentication for the new group of legacy clients while maintaining explicit authentication for existing legacy clients?
A. Add the pass-through authentication method in the site configuration file.
B. Change the services support site authentication method to pass-through.
C. Create a new store and set pass-through authentication as the \’LogonMethod\’ on the services URL.
D. Add the pass-through authentication method to the legacy services URL using the StoreFront console.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A Personal vDisk can be __________ and ____________. (Choose the two correct phrases to complete the sentence.)
A. used with servers and desktops
B. placed on a different storage than the write cache
C. used for application installations only and NOT drivers
D. used with a third-party user profile management solution
E. used with Provisioning Services to stream to physical and virtual machines
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
Which two Windows components can be selected using the Provisioning Services Device Optimization Tool? (Choose two.)
A. Search
B. Firewall
C. SuperFetch
D. Screen Saver
E. TCP/IP Offload
Correct Answer: AC

The Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration exam is divided into the following sections:

  • Installing and Implementing XenServer
  • Managing and Maintaining Hosts
  • Managing and Maintaining Virtual Machines and Templates
  • Configuring and managing resource pools
  • Installing and configuring Provisioning Services
  • Maintaining Provisioning Services
  • Configuring Advanced Features
  • Backing up and Restoring
  • Troubleshooting

Please note: Exam A26 now validates the skills needed to install, configure and maintain Provisioning Services in a XenServer environment.

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Planning and managing a client life cycle strategy (16%)
  • Plan and manage client licensing and activation
  • Plan and manage software updates
  • Plan and manage a physical hardware and virtualization strategy
Designing a standard image (17%)
  • Design an image creation strategy
  • Design a custom image
  • Define an image update strategy
Designing client configurations (17%)
  • Design standard system settings
  • Define client security standards
  • Define Windows Internet Explorer settings
Designing a Windows 7 client deployment (15%)
  • Analyze the environment and choose appropriate deployment methods
  • Design a lite-touch deployment strategy
  • Design a zero-touch deployment strategy
  • Design a user state migration strategy
Designing application packages for deployment (17%)
  • Design a delivery or deployment strategy
  • Manage application compatibility
Identifying and resolving deployment and client configuration issues (19%)
  • Identify and resolve Internet Explorer issues
  • Identify and resolve Group Policy issues
  • Identify and resolve networking issues
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Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-744 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-9)

QUESTION 1
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with Windows Server 2008 R2 member servers and 1,000 Windows 7 client computers.
You are designing the deployment of a custom application.
You have the following requirements:
You need to design a deployment strategy that meets the requirements.
Which deployment method should you use?
A. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
B. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007
C. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
D. software installation in Group Policy
70-686 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The RemoteApp and Desktop Connections feature offers several benefits: RemoteApp programs launch from the Start menu just like any other application. Published Remote Desktop connections are included alongside RemoteApp programs on the Start menu. Changes to the published connection (such as newly published RemoteApp programs) are automatically reflected on the user’s Start menu, without any effort on the user’s part. RemoteApp programs can be easily launched with Windows Search. Users only have to log on once, to create the connection. From that point on, updates happen with no prompt for user credentials. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections does not require domain membership for client computers. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections benefits from new features in Windows Server 2008 R2, such as Personal Desktop assignment or per-user application filtering. RemoteApp and Desktop Connections is built on standard technologies
such as XML and HTTPS, making it possible for developers to build solutions around it. It also offers APIs that allow the client software to support other types of resources, in addition to RemoteApp programs and Remote Desktop connections.

QUESTION 2
Your company’s network has client computers that run Windows 7. Multiple users share the computers in the shipping department. These computers reside in the Shipping Computers organizational unit (OU).
The company wants to deploy a new application. The application is not packaged.
You have the following requirements:
You need to plan the software deployment process to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you include in the process? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, create a collection that contains the shipping department computers, and assign the package to the collection.
B. Create a package by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the Computer Configuration container.
D. In the Group Policy Management Console, link the software installation policy to the Shipping Computers OU.
E. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, create a collection that contains the shipping department users, and assign the package to the collection.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hints:
GPO only support MSI & ZAP file type this application is not packaged = non MSI or ZaP file type

QUESTION 3
Your network has client computers that run Windows XP. All users access a custom line-of- business application. The line-of-business application is not compatible with Windows 7.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7.
You have the following requirements:
You need to manage application compatibility to meet the requirements. What should you do?
A. Install the application on a Remote Desktop Services server.
B. Install a shim for the application on each client computer.
C. Virtualize the application by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V).
D. Install the Windows Compatibility Evaluator on each client computer.
70-686 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows XP Professional x64.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
The company uses an application that is incompatible with Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
You have the following requirements:
You need to design a solution that meets the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Install the application on all client computers by using Group Policy, and then use the Compatibility tab.
B. Install the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client on each client computer, and run the application in offline mode.
C. Install the Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) package on each client computer.
D. Install the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client on each client computer, and stream the application by using App-V.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Your companys network has client computers that run Windows 7. Multiple users share the computers in the shipping department. These computers reside in the Shipping Computers organizational unit (OU). The network design is shown in the following diagram.
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You are planning to deploy an application. The application is packaged as a Microsoft Windows Installer package (MSI).
You need to deploy the application only to computers in the shipping department. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link the software installation policy to the Workstations OU.
B. Link the software installation policy to the Shipping Computers OU.
C. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the User Configuration container.
D. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and add a software installation policy under the Computer Configuration container.
70-686 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To specify how and when computers are updated through Group Policy In Group Policy Object Editor, expand Computer Configuration, expand Administrative Templates, expand Windows Components, and then click Windows Update. In the
details pane of Group Policy Object Editor, configure the appropriate policies. See the following table for examples of the policies you might want to set.. refer to

QUESTION 6
Your company has two Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains, Domain1 and Domain2. A two-way trust relationship exists between the domains. Users in both domains can log on to client computers in only their own domains. System logs on the domain controllers display the error message Clock skew too great when users in Domain1 attempt to log on to client computers in Domain2. You need to ensure that users can log on to client computers in both domains. What should you do?
A. Decrease the Maximum tolerance for computer clock synchronization setting in the default Domain Group Policy object ( GPO ).
B. Configure the primary domain controller (PDC) emulatorin each domain to synchronize its clock with the same external time source.
C. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /setsntp on all client computers.
D. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /querysntp on all client computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain named contoso.com. The design of the organizational units (OUs) and Group Policy objects (GPOs) is shown in the following diagram.
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Multiple computer configuration settings and user configuration settings are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO. A security audit indicates that user configuration settings that are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO are not applied when users log on to client computers that are in the Kiosk Computers OU. You need to ensure that the user configuration settings are correctly applied. What should you do?
A. Enable loopback processing in Merge mode on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
B. Disable the user configuration settings on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
C. Enable loopback processing in Replace mode on the Kiosk Computers GPO.
D. Disable the user configuration settings on the New York Users GPO.
70-686 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Refer to Planning and managing windows 7 desktop deployments and environment Pg 10-92

QUESTION 8
You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the
Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed. If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options. Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line. Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays. Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data. Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed. However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

QUESTION 9
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers. All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU). Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers. You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications. What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
70-686 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document. When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the Trusted Sites and Local
Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc784600(v=ws.10).aspx hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established by using a Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

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