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100-490 RSTECH
Certification: CCT Routing and Switching
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available languages: English, Japanese
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/100-490-rstech.html

Cisco 100-490 Exam Video

Cisco CCT Routing and Switching 100-490 Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two commands set the configuration register value? (Choose two.)
A. rommon>confreg 0x2102
B. router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
E. router(config)#config-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which command provides detailed information about the components that are installed on a router, such as the model,
PID, and serial number?
A. show chassis
B. show items
C. show inventory
D. show router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An Ethernet interface is up and the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. There is a speed or duplex mismatch with the remote device.
B. There is a Layer 2 mismatch in the encapsulation type.
C. The Ethernet interface has been manually disabled.
D. Keepalives are not being received by the local device.
E. The Ethernet cable might not be attached properly.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?
A. NVRAM
B. flash
C. SRAM
D. DRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?
A. SFP+
B. GBIC
C. QSFP+
D. XFP
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/interfaces-modules/40-gigabit-modules/index.html#:~:text=The%20Cisco%20QSFP%20BiDi%20transceiver,10%20Gigabit%20Ethernet%20fiber%20infrastructure

QUESTION 6
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?
A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which Windows-based text editor is preferred for working with a simple text document, such as a Cisco configuration?
A. Microsoft Word
B. Microsoft Notepad
C. Microsoft Access
D. Microsoft Excel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
How many pairs of copper wire does a UTP cable have?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which set of steps best describes how to assign a static IP address to the Ethernet port on a computer?
A. From the Network and Sharing Center, click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and follow the New Connection Wizard
instructions.
B. From the Network and Sharing Center, click Change adapter, then double-click a local area connection. Select
Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) > Properties > Use the Following Address, and then configure the IP information.
C. Click Start. Enter cmd and click OK. Enter the IP address XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX.
D. From the Network and Sharing Center, double-click Local Area Connection. Select Properties > iPass Protocol (IEEE
802.1x) > Properties > Static IP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?
A. highest two bits
B. lowest two bits
C. highest four bits
D. lowest four bits
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the default operating mode when you initially log in to a router?
A. user EXEC
B. global configuration
C. privileged EXEC
D. ROM monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the primary method for recovering or upgrading a Cisco network device system image?
A. USB storage
B. FTP
C. the tftpdnld command
D. the xmodem command
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The colored wires at one end of a cable are in reverse sequence to the colored wires at the other end of the cable.
Which cable does this configuration describe?
A. rolled
B. crossover
C. coaxial
D. straight-through
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Huawei H19-301 practice questions 1-10

QUESTION 1
Different SFU types can be used in CE1Z800 chassis
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
ARG3 supports 3G/LTE
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
CE6860 has 25GE downlink and 100GE uplink.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
how much donwlink speed does CE5800 support?
A. GE donwlink
B. 10GE donwlink
C. 40GE donwlink
D. 100GE donwlink
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
S5700-LI supports hardware ETH OAM and BFD.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the Cisco product are corresponding to Huawei NE40E series product? (Multiple Choice)
A. ASR9006
B. ASR9010
C. ASR9912
D. ASR9922
Correct Answer: ABCD
 

QUESTION 7
About AR550, which description is wrong?
A. work between 40oC~+60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
S5720HI integrates ENPchip inside.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
which NE support MPU 1:1 redundancy? (Multiple Choice)
A. NE20E-S16
B. NE20E-S8
C. NE20E-S4
D. NE20E-SF
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which are the highlights of the Huawei IP hard pipe solution?
A. No jitter
B. High reliability
C. Low latency
D. No packet loss
Correct Answer: BCD

Latest Huawei H19-311 practice questions 1-10

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are the features of the PDU for the UPS2000-G series (6 kVA to 20 kVA)? (Multiple Choice)
A. The PDU implements input/output power distribution for two UPSs in parallel.
B. The PDU provides a central maintenance bypass for a stand-alone system or parallel systems.
C. The PDU uses an extension output socket with the following specifications: OT; 4 x C13; 2 x C19.
D. The PDU monitors the surrounding environment and generates an alarm when an error occurs.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
The height of the UPS5000-E (25-75 kVA) power module is only 2U.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Maintenance services cannot be configured in Unistar SCT.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are the highlights of the UPS2000-G series (6 kVA to 20 kVA)? () (Multiple Choice)
A. Reliable
B. Efficient
C. Simple
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
The pipe routing method for the FusionModule800 is ().
A. Top and bottom pipe routing
B. Bottom pipe routing
C. Top pipe routing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The UPS2000-G-10KRTL is rack/tower convertible. The rack-mounted model is () high.
A. 1U
B. 2U
C. 3U
D. 4U
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following advantages does the UPS5000-A have compared with the NXP, 9395, and Galaxy 7000?
(Multiple Choice)
A. Input voltage range
B. Efficiency
C. Floor area
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
The failure warning feature for the key components of a UPS system changes post-event maintenance to pre-event
maintenance, protecting loads from unexpected power failures. Which of the following components of the UPS2000-G
support failure warning? (Multiple Choice)
A. Fan
B. Bus capacitor
C. Output capacitor
D. Battery
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
The FusionModule500 license is free for up to 50 sites, but is charged for more than 50 sites.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following alarms can the UPS5000-A dry contact expansion card set? (Multiple Choice)
A. Bypass power supply
B. Battery supply
C. Battery undervoltage
D. D.G. controlling
E. Door sensor
Correct Answer: ABCDE

Latest Huawei H31-341 practice questions 1-10

QUESTION 1
In the scenario where the non-convergence OTU processes OTN standard signals, both A and B are WDM sites. After
receiving the OTUk_TIM alarm on the client side, the OTU board at station A sends the OTUk_BDI alarm to the
upstream. When the TIM follow-up action is disabled, the alarm is no longer transmitted to the downstream. When the
TIM follow-up action is enabled, an SF event is generated. The WDM side of the OTU board at station B reports the
ODUk_PM_AIS alarm, and the ODUk_PM_AIS alarm is transmitted downstream. The client equipment reports this
alarm. After the WDM side of the OTU board at station B receives the OTUk_TIM alarm and the TIM follow-up action is
disabled, the alarm is no longer transmitted to the downstream. When the TIM follow-up action is enabled, an SF event
is generated. After the client side of station B processes the SF event, the client equipment reports the ODUk_PM_AIS
alarm.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The maximum output optical power of an OBU board is 20 dBm, when it is used in a C-band 80-channel system, what is
the standard per-channel output optical power?
A. +ldBm
B. -2dBm
C. +7dBm
D. +4dBm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Before querying bit errors and optical power on the U2000, you need to perform the ( ) operation. Otherwise, the
corresponding data cannot be queried.
A. Enabling the NE Performance Monitoring Time
B. Creating the logical fiber
C. Synchronizing NE data
D. Configuring data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Dispersion compensation is not required for 40 Gbit/s and 100 Gbit/s coherent systems because the dispersion
tolerance of coherent boards is large. NG WDM products do not support hybrid transmission of non-coherent and
coherent networks.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about avoiding the generation of discrete trails are correct?
A. Use the trail function for configuration.
B. For services configured on a per-NE basis, search for trails on the NMS to ensure that the service configurations are
complete and standard.
C. A fiber cut or switching test must be performed on the trail with protection routes to ensure that the configuration is
complete and standard.
D. Guide users to learn service configuration specifications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When different routes are used for client-side 1 + 1 protection, the working wavelength and protection wavelength
cannot use the same wavelength.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following monitoring boards do not support 1588v2 signal processing and transparent transmission?
A. AST2
B. SC2
C. ST2
D. SCI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
If the LED indicator value on the SCC board of the OSN 8800 T32 board is 11, which of the following is the subrack ID?
A. Slave subrack 2
B. Slave subrack 1
C. Slave subrack 17
D. Slave subrack 11
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following signals can be used as input or output signals of an external clock interface?
A. 2.048 MHz
B. 2.048 Mbit/s
C. 155 Mbit/s
D. 34 Mbit/s
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Before the optical power commissioning of an ROADM board, you need to configure virtual optical-layer services.
Otherwise, the ROADM board blocks all wavelengths by default.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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70-740 Microsoft Exam Info and Free Practice Test

Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

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QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with each other only. The solution must prevent VM1 and
VM2 from communicating with Server1. Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Set-NetNeighbor
B. Remove-VMSwitchTeamMember
C. Set-VMSwitch
D. Enable-VMSwitchExtension
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. The nodes run
Windows Server 2016.
The NLB cluster has the following configuration.

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q2

You deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to both servers.
You need to configure NLB to load balance requests between the web servers. HTTP requests must be stateless.
HTTPS requests must be stateful.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Modify the Cluster operation mode.
B. Suspend the cluster.
C. Drainstop the cluster.
D. Add a new port rule.
E. Edit the existing port rule.
Correct Answer: CD
References:
https://www.ntweekly.com/2017/09/04/failover-nlb-cluster-host-member/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/network-load-balancing

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You install the Docker daemon on Server1 You need
to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500. What should you do?
A. Run theNew-NetFirewallRulecmdlet
B. Run theSet-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the sc config command.
D. Run the sc control command.
Correct Answer: C
The preferred method for configuring the Docker Engine on Windows is using a configuration file. The configuration file
can be found at \\’C:\ProgramData\Docker\config\daemon.json\\’. If this file does not already exist, it can be created.
The Docker Engine can also be configured by modifying the Docker service using the sc config command.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/manage-docker/configure-docker-daemon

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one
correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You need to create a Nano Server image named Nano1 that will be used as a virtualization host. The Windows Server 2016 source files are located in drive D.

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q4

Solution: You run the following cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You need to create a Nano Server image named Nano1 that will be used as a virtualization host. The Windows Server
2016 source files are located in drive D.
Solution: You run the following cmdlet.

Pass4itsure 70-740 exam questions-q5

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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70-741 Microsoft Exam Info and Free Practice Test

Networking with Windows Server 2016

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a domain-based Distributed File System (DFS) namespace named Namespace1.
You need to view the shares to which users will be redirected when the users attempt to connect to a folder named
Folder1 in the DFS namespace.
What cmdlet should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You install IP Address Management (IPAM) on Server1. You select the automatic provisioning method, and then you
specify a prefix of IPAM1.
Which cmdlet should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q2-2

Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning –Domain contoso.com –GpoPrefixName IPAM –IpamServerFqdn dc1.contoso.com

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and is configured as a domain controller.
You install the DNS Server server role on Server1.
You plan to store a DNS zone in a custom Active Directory partition.
You need to create a new Active Directory partition for the zone.
What should you use?
A. Set-DnsServer
B. DNS Manager
C. New-ADObject
D. Ntdsutil.exe
E. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: B
https://www.businessnewsdaily.com/11019-set-up-configure-dns-on-windows-server-2016.html

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains five domains. You manage DNS for the contoso.com domain only.
You are not responsible for managing DNS for the child domains.
The DNS servers in a child domain named research.contoso.com are reconfigured often.
You need to ensure that clients in contoso.com can resolve addresses in research.contoso.com. The solution must
minimize zone replication traffic.
What should you do?
A. Create a primary zone for research.contoso.com on the DNS servers of contoso.com
B. Create a secondary zone for research.contoso.com on the DNS servers of contoso.com
C. Create a stub zone for research.contoso.com on the DNS servers of contoso.com
D. Create a delegation for research.contoso.com
Correct Answer: D
References: https://blogs.msmvps.com/acefekay/2010/10/01/dns-parent-child-dns-delegation-how-to-create-a-dnsdelegation/

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1.
All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10.
Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member
of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network.
Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to a remote access server that runs
Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subject to access
policies in
Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
All Windows computers on the network are activated by using Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use
Remote Desktop Services (RDS). You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network. Which action can
you perform on the network by using IPAM?
A. Manage the DNS zones on the DNS servers.
B. Audit logon events on the RDS server.
C. Audit authentication events from DC1.
D. Manage activations on the KMS server.
Correct Answer: C

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Identity with Windows Server 2016

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You open Group Policy Management as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q1

You discover that some of the settings configured in the A1 Group Policy object (GPO) fail to apply to the users in the
OU1 organizational unit (OU).
You need to ensure that all of the settings in A1 apply to the users in OU1.
What should you do?
A. Enable loopback policy processing in A1.
B. Block inheritance on OU1.
C. Modify the policy processing order for OU1.
D. Modify the GPO Status of A1.
E. Modify Security Settings for A1
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/musings_of_a_technical_tam/2012/02/15/group-policy-basicspart-2-understanding-which-gpos-to-apply/

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain.
You have a user account that is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You have 100 laptops that have a standard corporate image installed. The laptops are in workgroups and have random
names.
A technician named Tech1 is assigned the task of joining the laptops to the domain. The computer accounts of each
laptop must be in an organizational unit (OU) that is associated to the department of the user who will use the laptop.
The
laptop names must start with four characters indicating the department, followed by a four-digit number.
Tech1 is a member of the Domain Users group only. Tech1 has the administrator logon credentials for all the laptops.
You need Tech1 to join the laptops to the domain. The solution must ensure that the laptops are named correctly, and
the computer accounts of the laptops are in the correct OUs.
Solution: You instruct Tech1 to sign in to each laptop, to rename each laptop by using System in Control Panel, and
then to join each laptop to the domain by using the Netdom join command.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. IPAM is configured to use the Group Policy based provisioning
method.
The prefix for the IPAM Group Policy objects (GPOs) is IP.
From Group Policy Management, you manually rename the IPAM GPOs to have a prefix of IPAM.
You need to modify the GPO prefix used by IPAM.
What should you do?
A. Click Configure server discovery in Server Manager.
B. Run the Set-IpamConfiguration cmdlet.
C. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning cmdlet.
D. Click Provision the IPAM server in Server Manager.
Correct Answer: B
The Set-IpamConfiguration cmdlet modifies the configuration for the computer that runs the IPAM server.
The -GpoPrefix parameter specifies the unique Group Policy object (GPO) prefix name that IPAM uses to create the
group policy objects. Use this parameter only when the value of the ProvisioningMethod parameter is set to
Automatic.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/ipamserver/set-ipamconfiguration?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run Windows
Server 2016. The servers are configured as shown in the following table:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q4

You have a research department. The computers in the research department are not domain-joined.
You need to ensure that the research department computers can use automatic certificate enrollment to receive and
renew certificates from the CA.
Which two role services should you install and configure on CA? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Certificate Enrollment Policy Web Service
B. Certificate Authority Web Enrollment
C. Online Responder
D. Certificate Enrollment Web Service
E. Network Device Enrollment Service
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://www.ejbca.org/docs/Part_2__Microsoft_Certification_Authority_and_Group_Policies.html

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain.
You have a user account that is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You have 100 laptops that have a standard corporate image installed. The laptops are in workgroups and have random
names.
A technician named Tech1 is assigned the task of joining the laptops to the domain. The computer accounts of each
laptop must be in an organizational unit (OU) that is associated to the department of the user who will use the laptop.
The
laptop names must start with four characters indicating the department, followed by a four-digit number.
Tech1 is a member of the Domain Users group only. Tech1 has the administrator logon credentials for all the laptops.
You need Tech1 to join the laptops to the domain. The solution must ensure that the laptops are named correctly, and
the computer accounts of the laptops are in the correct OUs.
Solution: You script the creation of files domain join, and then you give the files to Tech1.
You instruct Tech1 to sign in to each laptop, and then to run djoin.exe.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Microsoft 70-742 Video tutorial exercises

70-743 Microsoft Exam Info and Free Practice Test

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016

The official 70-743 exam page https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-743.aspx

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 is configured as a VPN server. Server1 is configured to allow domain users to establish VPN connections from
06:00 to 18:00, every day of the week.
You need to ensure that domain users can establish VPN connections only between Monday and Friday.
Solution: From Active Directory Users and Computers, you modify the Dial-in properties of the user accounts.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-743 exam questions-q2

All of the virtual switches are of the external type.
You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to
disconnect from the network.
Solution: You implement live migration by using Host1 and Host3.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Live migration is a Hyper-V feature that allows you to transparently move running Virtual Machines from one Hyper-V
host to another without perceived downtime.
Common requirements for any form of live migration: Two (or more) servers running Hyper-V that:
-Support hardware virtualization.
-Use processors from the same manufacturer. For example, all AMD or all Intel.
-Belong to either the same Active Directory domain, or to domains that trust each other.
Virtual machines must be configured to use virtual hard disks or virtual Fibre Channel disks (no physical disks).
Use of an isolated network, physically or through another networking technology such as VLANs, is recommended for
live migration network traffic.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2012-R2-and-2012/hh831435(v=ws.11)

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host. You run the commands
shown in the following graphic:

Pass4itsure 70-743 exam questions-q3

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-743 exam questions-q3-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-743 exam questions-q3-3

QUESTION 4
You are deploying a small network that has 30 client computers. The network uses the 192.168.1.0/24 address space.
All computers obtain IP configurations from a DHCP server named Server1.
You install a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server2 has two network adapters named internal
and Internet. Internet connects to an Internet service provider (ISP) and obtains the 131.107.0.10 IP address. Internal
connects to the internal network and is configured to use the 192.168.1.250 IP address.
You need to provide Internet connectivity for the client computers. What should you do?
A. On Server2, select the Internet and Internal network adapters and bridge the connections. From the DHCP console
on Server1, authorize Server2.
B. On Server1, stop the DHCP server. On the Internal network adapter on Server 2, enable Internet Connection Sharing
(ICS).
C. On Server2 run the New-NetNat -Name NAT1 -InternalIPInterfaceAddressPrefix 1 92.168.1.0/24 cmdlet. Configure
Server1 to provide the 003 Router option of 1 31.107.0.10.
D. Install the Routing role service on Server2 and configure the NAT routing protocol. Configure Server1 to provide the
003 Router option of 192.168.1.250.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Connection_Sharing

QUESTION 5
Your network contains a new Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a security policy that states that new servers should run Nano Server whenever possible.
Which server role can be deployed on a Nano Server?
A. DHCP Server
B. Network Policy and Access Services
C. Remote Desktop Services
D. DNS Server
E. Active Directory Certificate Services
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/get-started/getting-started-with-nano-server

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70-744 Microsoft Exam Info and Free Practice Test

Securing Windows Server 2016

The official 70-744 exam page https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-744.aspx

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. The internal network contains an Active Directory
forest named contoso.com. You deploy five servers to the perimeter network.
All of the servers run Windows Server 2016 and are the members of a workgroup.
You need to apply a security baseline named Perimeter.inf to the servers in the perimeter network.
What should you use to apply Perimeter.inf?
A. Local Computer Policy
B. Security Configuration Wizard (SCW)
C. Group Policy Management
D. Server Manager
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/get-started/deprecated-features
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/secguide/2016/01/21/lgpo-exe-local-group-policy-object-utility-v1-0/
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742512.aspx
Pass4itsure 70-744 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server
2012. All servers run Windows Server 2016. You create a new bastion forest named admin.contoso.com. The forest
functional level of admin.contoso.com is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to implement a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Raise the forest functional level of admm.contoso.com.
B. Deploy Microsoft Identify Management (MIM) 2016 to admin.contoso.com.
C. Configure contoso.com to trust admin.contoso.com.
D. Deploy Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) 2016 to contoso.com.
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
F. Configure admin.contoso.com to trust contoso.com.
Correct Answer: BC
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-identity-manager/pam/deploy-pam-with-windows-server-2016
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/windows-server-2016-functional-levels

Pass4itsure 70-744 exam questions-q2

For the bastion forest which deploys MIM, you should raise the Forest Functional Level to “Windows Server

QUESTION 3
You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2016 Member servers run either Windows Server 2012 R2 or Windows
Server 2016.
Client computers run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
You need to ensure that when users access files in shared folders on the network, the files are encrypted when
they are transferred over the network.
Solution: You enable access-based enumeration on all the file shares. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Access-Based Enumeration does not help encrypting network file transfer.

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1.
Solution: From a Group Policy, you configure the Kerberos Policy. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.rootusers.com/implement-ntlm-blocking-in-windows-server-2016/

QUESTION 5
You plan to use the Security and Audit solution in Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) to monitor servers
that run Windows Server 2016. The servers are prevented from accessing the Internet.
You create an OMS workspace and add the Security and Audit solution.
You need to ensure that you can monitor the servers.
What should you do first?
A. From Connected Sources, click Download OMS Gateway.
B. From Accounts, modify the Azure Subscription and Data Plan setting.
C. From Accounts, add an Automation Account.
D. From Connected Sources, click Download Windows Agent (32 bit).
Correct Answer: B

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How to prepare for the Microsoft Visual Studio certification exam

  • Step 1 . Finding Out What Goes Into the Exam
  • Step 2. Preparing the Exam,Getting Comfortable with the Exam Experience(Latest test information)

Microsoft 70-480: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

Step 1 : Exam information

Experience developing with HTML in an object-based, event-driven programming model, and programming essential business logic for a variety of application types, hardware, and software platforms using JavaScript.

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-480.aspx

  • Implement and Manipulate Document Structures and Objects (20-25%)
  • Implement Program Flow (25-30%)
  • Access and Secure Data (25-30%)
  • Use CSS3 in Applications (25-30%)

Step 2 : Preparing the Exam, Learning materials

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Microsoft 70-480 Exam Free Practice Test 1-2

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You have the following markup:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q1

You need to complete the styles to meet the following requirements:
flex1 must be one-third of the page width.
flex2 must be two-thirds of the page width.
How should you complete the styles? To answer, drag the appropriate code elements to the correct targets in the
answer area. Each code element may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q1-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q1-3

QUESTION 2
You are developing an application that processes order information. Thousands of orders are processed daily. The
application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q2

The application must:
Display the number of orders processed and the number of orders remaining
Update the display for every 25th record processed
You need to develop the application to meet these requirements.
Which line of code should you insert at line 04?
A. if (!(counter % 25))
B. if (counter == 25)
C. if (counter >> 25 == 0)
D. if (counter > (Sign-propagating right shift) Shifts the first operand in binary representation the number of bits to the
right specified in the second operand, discarding bits shifted off.

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Microsoft 70-483: Programming in C#

Step 1 : Exam information

Professional developers who use Microsoft Visual Studio 2017 and ASP.NET to design and develop web solutions.

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-483.aspx

  • Manage Program Flow (25-30%)
  • Create and Use Types (25-30%)
  • Debug Applications and Implement Security (25-30%)
  • Implement Data Access (25-30%)

Step 2 : Preparing the Exam, Learning materials

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Microsoft 70-483 Exam Free Practice Test 1-5

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You are developing a custom collection named LoanCollection for a class named Loan class.
You need to ensure that you can process each Loan object in the LoanCollection collection by using a foreach loop.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations
in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the
split
bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
You are developing an application that contains a class named TheaterCustomer and a method named
ProcessTheaterCustomer. The ProcessTheaterCustomer() method accepts a TheaterCustomer object as the input
parameter.
You have the following requirements:
Store the TheaterCustomer objects in a collection. Ensure that the ProcessTheaterCustomer() method processes the
TheaterCustomer objects in the order in which they are placed into the collection.
You need to meet the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create a System.Collections.Stack collection. Use the Push() method to add TheaterCustomer objects to the
collection, Use the Peek() method to pass the objects to the ProcessTheaterCustomer() method.
B. Create a System.Collections.Queue collection. Use the Enqueue() method to add TheaterCustomer objects to the
collection. Use the Dequeue() method to pass the objects to the ProcessTheaterCustomer() method.
C. Create a System.Collections.SortedList collection. Use the Add() method to add TheaterCustomer objects to the
collection. Use the Remove() method to pass the objects to the ProcessTheaterCustomer() method.
D. Create a System.Collections.ArrayList collection. Use the Insert() method to add TheaterCustomer objects to the
collection. Use the Remove() method to pass the objects to the ProcessTheaterCustomer() method.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The System.Collections.Queue collection represents a first-in, first-out collection of objects.
Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/enus/library/system.collections.queue(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 3
You are developing a C# application that has a requirement to validate some string input data by using the Regex
class.
The application includes a method named ContainsHyperlink. The ContainsHyperlink() method will verify the presence
of a URI and surrounding markup.
The following code segment defines the ContainsHyperlink() method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q3

The expression patterns used for each validation function are constant.
You need to ensure that the expression syntax is evaluated only once when the Regex object is initially instantiated.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
RegexOptions.Compiled – Specifies that the regular expression is compiled to an assembly.This yields faster execution
but increases startup time.This value should not be assigned to the Options property when calling the
CompileToAssembly method. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.text.regularexpressions.regexoptions.aspx
Additional info http://stackoverflow.com/questions/513412/how-does-regexoptions-compiled-work

QUESTION 4
You are developing an application.
The application contains the following code segment (line numbers are included for reference only):

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q4

When you run the code, you receive the following error message: “Cannot implicitly convert type \\’object\\’\\’ to \\’inf. An
explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?).”
You need to ensure that the code can be compiled.
Which code should you use to replace line 05?
A. var2 = ((List) array1) [0];
B. var2 = array1[0].Equals(typeof(int));
C. var2 = Convert.ToInt32(array1[0]);
D. var2 = ((int[])array1)[0];
Correct Answer: C
     Explanation: The Convert.ToInt32 method converts a specified value to a 32-bit signed integer. Reference:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.convert.toint32(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have a class named Customer and a class named Order.
The customer class has a property named Orders that contains a list of Order objects.
The Order class has a property named OrderDate that contains the date of the Order.
You need to create a LINQ query that returns all of the customers who had at least one order during the year 2005.
You write the following code.

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q5

How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code elements to the correct targets in the answer
area. Each code element may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q5-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-483 exam questions-q5-3

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Microsoft 70-486: Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications

Step 1 : Exam information

Professional developers who use Microsoft Visual Studio 2017 and ASP.NET to design and develop web solutions.

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-486.aspx

  • Design the build and deployment architecture (10-15%)
  • Design the User Experience (15-20%)
  • Develop the User Experience (15-20%)
  • Troubleshoot and Debug Web Applications (20-25%)
  • Design and Implement Security (15-20%)

Step 2 : Preparing the Exam, Learning materials

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Microsoft 70-486 Exam Free Practice Test 1-3

QUESTION 1
You create an ASP.NET MVC application. You host the application by using the Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN).
You run the following command by using the NuGet Package Manager console:
install-package Microsoft.AspNet.SignalR
You plan to implement real-time push notifications from the server using ASP.NET SignalR.
You need to complete the ASP.NET SignalR implementation.
Which three steps should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a hub class to push content to clients.
B. Create a class that derives from the PersistentConnection class. Use the derived class to push content to clients.
C. Use the SignalR jQuery library in a web page to send messages to the hub and display updates from the hub.
D. Map a SignalR hub to the app builder pipeline by using an OWIN startup class.
E. Start the SignalR hub asynchronously and respond to the appropriate callback methods.
Correct Answer: ACD
A: In Solution Explorer, right-click the project, select Add | New Folder, and add a new folder named Hubs. Right-click
the Hubs folder, click Add | New Item, select the Visual C# | Web | SignalR node in the Installed pane, select SignalR
Hub Class (v2) from the center pane, and create a new hub named ChatHub.cs. You will use this class as a SignalR
server hub that sends messages to all clients.
C: Use the SignalR jQuery library in a web page to send messages and display updates from the hub.
D: Create an OWIN startup class to configure the application.
References: https://www.asp.net/signalr/overview/getting-started/tutorial-getting-started- with-signalr-and-mvc

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are optimizing an Internet-facing website for search engine optimization.
You are reading a Site Analysis Report from the SEO Toolkit. The report returns warnings that indicate the website
HTML lacks key information necessary for search engine indexing.
You need to improve the optimization of the site.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the drop-down list in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-486 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-486 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application for viewing a photo album. The application is designed for
devices that support changes in orientation, such as tablets and smartphones. The application displays a grid of photos
in portrait mode.
When the orientation changes to landscape, each tile in the grid expands to include a description. The HTML that
creates the gallery interface resembles the following markup.

Pass4itsure 70-486 exam questions-q3

If this CSS is omitted, the existing CSS displays the tiles in landscape mode.
You need to update the portrait mode CSS to apply only to screens with a width less than 500 pixels.
Which code segment should you use?
A. @media resolution(max-width: 500px) {. . .}
B. @media screen(min-width: Opx, max-width: 500px) {. . .}
C. @media screen and (width

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Microsoft 70-487: Developing Microsoft Azure and Web Services

Step 1 : Exam information

Use Visual Studio 2017 and the Microsoft® .NET Core Framework to design and develop Web solutions.

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  • Accessing Data (20-25%)
  • Querying and Manipulating Data by Using the Entity Framework (20-25%)
  • Creating and Consuming Web API-based services (20-25%)
  • Designing and Implementing Web Services (15-20%)
  • Deploying Web Applications and Services (15-20%)

Step 2 : Preparing the Exam, Learning materials

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Microsoft 70-487 Exam Free Practice Test 1-5

QUESTION 1
You need to compile CarBusinesLogic.dll by using Microsoft Visual Studio.
Which attribute should you add before you compile the dynamic-link library (DLL)?
A. System.Reflection.AssemblyConfigurationAttribute
B. System.Reflection.AssemblyKeyFileAttribute
C. AssemblyFlagsAttribute
D. System.Reflection.AssemblyAlgorithmIdAttribute
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: The CarBusinessLogic.dll assembly must be strongly-named. One way to sign an assembly with a strong
name is by using assembly attributes to insert the strong name information into your code. You can use either the
AssemblyKeyFileAttribute or the AssemblyKeyNameAttribute attribute, depending on where the key file to be used is
located. Note: To sign an assembly with a strong name by using attributes References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/enus/library/xc31ft41(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 2
You are developing a WCF service.
The service must be interoperable with ASP.NET web service clients. In addition, it must have a time-out of three
hours.
You need to configure the service to meet the requirements.
You have the following markup:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2

Which markup segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3, Target 4, Target 5, Target 6 and Target 7 to
complete the markup? (To answer, select the appropriate markup segment from each drop-down list in the answer
area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2-3

QUESTION 3
You are developing a library management application that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server
database. The application has a method that returns check outs filtered by date. The Book class is shown below.

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q3

You must filter the data on the SQL server before it is returned to the application server.
You need to return books checked out more recently than the entered date.
Which code segment should you use?

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
The difference is that IQueryable is the interface that allows LINQ-to-SQL (LINQ.-to- anything really) to work. So if you
further refine your query on an IQueryable, that query will be executed in the database, if possible. For the IEnumerable
case, it will be LINQ-to-object, meaning that all objects matching the original query will have to be loaded into memory
from the database.

QUESTION 4
The data is synced, all changes need to be merged together without causing any data loss or corruption.
You need to implement the Sync() method in the MargiesTravelSync.es file.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer
area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q4-2

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms135424.aspx

QUESTION 5
You are developing a WCF service in Visual Studio 2013 that integrates with the Microsoft Azure service bus relay.
The Azure service bus namespace is named RestaurantServiceBus
You need to obtain the issuer name and secret.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q5-2

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Windows Server 2012

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Exam Ref 70-410:

this exam includes content covering Windows Server 2012 R2. https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-410.aspx Official information.

  • Install and configure servers (15–20%)
  • Configure server roles and features (15–20%)
  • Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)
  • Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)
  • Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)
  • Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

Microsoft 70-410 Video preparation

70-410 Microsoft Exam Free Practice Test

Come on, practice!

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1. Server1 runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The local area
connection on Server1 has the following configuration: IP address: 10.1.1.1
Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Default gateway: 10.1.1.254
Preferred DNS server:
The network contains a DNS server that has an IPv4 address of 10.1.1.200. You need to configure Server1 to use
10.1.1.200 as the preferred DNS server. The solution must not change any other settings on Server1. Which command
should you run?
A. sconfig.cmd
B. net.exe
C. Set-NetIPInterface
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A
In Windows Server 2012 R2, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several
common aspects of Server Core installations.
Network settings
You can configure the IP address to be assigned automatically by a DHCP Server or you can assign a static IP address
manually. This option allows you to configure DNS Server settings for the server as well.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1
(SP1)
and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You need to manage DHCP on Server2 by using the DHCP console on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. From Windows PowerShell on Server2, run Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run Install-Windows Feature.
C. From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security on Server2, create an inbound rule.
D. From Internet Explorer on Server2, download and install Windows Management Framework 3.0.
E. From the Microsoft management Console on Server1, add a snap-in.
Correct Answer: B
When the DHCP role is installed, it appears that the firewall rules are automatically added, so C is not valid (not only
that, but either way it is an existing rule that one would need only enable nonetheless, not create a new rule). This
means
you only need to add the DHCP Manager MMC snap-in which is a Role Administration Tool feature.
So the correct answer must be B.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 6 Network Administration, p.228

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard. You
establish a Remote Desktop session to Server1.
You need to identify which task can be performed on Server1 from within the Remote Desktop session.
What should you identify?
A. Install a feature by using Server Manager.
B. Modify the network settings by using Sconfig.
C. Disable services by using Msconfig.
D. Join a domain by using the System Properties.
Correct Answer: B
In Windows Server 2012 R2, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several
common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool.
Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj647766.aspx
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80.

QUESTION 4
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain
controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to modify the membership of a group named Group1 to include two users named User1 and User2.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-410 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-410 exam questions-q4-2

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/ee617210.aspx

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The password policy for the domain is set to require a minimum password length of 10 characters.
A user named User1 and a user named User2 work for the sales department.
User1 is forced to create a domain password that has a minimum of 12 characters. User2 is forced to create a domain
password that has a minimum of eight characters.
You need to identify what forces the two users to have different password lengths.
Which tool should you use?
A. Credential Manager
B. Security Configuration Wizard (SCW)
C. Group Policy Management
D. Active Directory Administrative Center
Correct Answer: D
In Windows Server 2008, you can use fine-grained password policies to specify multiple password policies and apply
different password restrictions and account lockout policies to different sets of users within a single domain. For
example, to increase the security of privileged accounts, you can apply stricter settings to the privileged accounts and
then apply less strict settings to the accounts of other users. Or in some cases, you may want to apply a special
password policy for accounts whose passwords are synchronized with other data sources.
This is found in the Active Directory Administrative Center. You can use Active Directory Administrative Center to
perform the following Active Directory administrative tasks:
Create new user accounts or manage existing user accounts Create new groups or manage existing groups Create new
computer accounts or manage existing computer accounts Create new organizational units (OUs) and containers or
manage existing OUs Connect to one or several domains or domain controllers in the same instance of Active Directory
Administrative Center, and view or manage the directory information for those domains or domain controllers Filter
Active Directory data by using query-building search

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Exam Ref 70-411:

Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment. https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-411.aspx Official information.

Microsoft 70-411 Video preparation

70-411 Microsoft Exam Free Practice Test

Come on, practice!

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains more than 100 Group
Policy objects (GPOs). Currently, there are no enforced GPOs.
You have a GPO named GPO1 that is linked to the domain.
You need to configure GPO1 to apply settings to Group1 only.
You need to configure GPO1 to apply settings to Group1 only.
What should you use?
A. Dcgpofix
B. Get-GPOReport
C. Gpfixup
D. Gpresult
E. Gpedit. msc
F. Import-GPO
G. Restore-GPO
H. Set-GPInheritance
I. Set-GPLink
J. Set-GPPermission
K. Gpupdate
L. Add-ADGroupMember
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have several Windows PowerShell scripts that execute when client computers start.
When a client computer starts, you discover that it takes a long time before users are prompted to log on.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for the client computers to start. The solution must not prevent scripts from completing successfully.
Which setting should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-411 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-411 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are
configured as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-411 exam questions-q3

Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled.
You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an Active Directory group named Group1
an hour ago.
You need to restore the membership of Group1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the isRecycledattribute of Group1.
B. Perform tombstone reanimation.
C. Perform a non-authoritative restore.
D. Perform an authoritative restore.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server
2012. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8.1.
The domain contains 10 domain controllers and a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC01. All domain
controllers and RODCs are hosted on a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to identify which security principals are authorized to have their password cached on RODC1.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Get-ADGroupMember
B. Get-ADDomainControllerPasswordReplicationPolicy
C. Get-ADDomainControllerPasswordReplicationPolicyUsage
D. Get-ADDomain
E. Get-ADOptionalFeature
F. Get-ADAccountAuthorizationGroup
G. Get-ADythenticationpolicysilo
H. Get-ADAuthenticationpolicy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File Server Resource Manager
role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder on Server1, an email
notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS permissions for Folder1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting to access Folder1, an email
notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2. The solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about
other access-denied messages. What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by selecting the SMB Share –
Advanced option.
B. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Access-Denied Assistance settings.
C. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications settings.
D. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by selecting the SMB Share
-Applications option.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574182.aspx#BKMK_12 When using the email model each of the
file shares, you can determine whether access requests to each file share will be received by the administrator, a
distribution list that represents the file share owners, or both.
The owner distribution list is configured by using the SMB Share ?Advanced file share profile in the New Share Wizard
in Server Manager.

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Exam Ref 70-412:

This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise environment.https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-412.aspx Official information.

Microsoft 70-412 Video preparation

70-412 Microsoft Exam Free Practice Test

Come on, practice!

QUESTION 1
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has an active directory domain named
ABC.com. All servers on the abc.com network windows server2012 installed.
You are currently running a training exercise for junior network administrators.
You are discussing the PKISync.ps1 tool.
Which of the following is true with regards to The PKISync.ps1?
A. it adds a certificate template to the CA
B. it assists administrators in diagnosing replication problems between windows domain controllers
C. it is used to display information about the digital certificates that are installed on a direct Access client, Direct Access
server, or intranet resource
D. it copies objects in the source forest to the target forest.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in Detroit. The branch office is located in
Seattle.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. Client computers run either Windows 7
Enterprise or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
The main office contains 1,000 client computers and 50 servers. The branch office contains 20 client computers.
All computer accounts for the branch office are located in an organizational unit (OU) named SeattleComputers. A
Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the SeattleComputers OU.
You need to configure BranchCahce for the branch office.
Which of following settings should you configure in GPO1? (Choose 2)
A. Turn on BranchCache
B. Set age for segments in the data cache
C. Set BranchCache Hosted Cache mode
D. Configure Hosted Cache Servers
E. Set BranchCache Distributed Cache mode
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office.
An Active Directory site exists for each office.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains two domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-412 exam questions-q3

DC1 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for contoso.com.
You add the DNS Server server role to DC2.
You discover that the contoso.com DNS zone fails to replicate to DC2.
You verify that the domain, schema, and configuration naming contexts replicate from DC1 to DC2.
You need to ensure that DC2 replicates the contoso.com zone by using Active Directory replication.
Which tool should you use?
A. Dnslint
B. A DNS Manager
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Dnscmd
Correct Answer: A
Note: If you see questions about AD Replication, first preference is AD sites and services, then Repadmin and then
DNSLINT.

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has a single volume that is encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
BitLocker is configured to save encryption keys to a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). Server1 is configured to perform a
daily system image backup.
The motherboard on Server1 is upgraded.
After the upgrade, Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1 fails to start.
You need to start the operating system on Server1 as soon as possible.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard. Start the server from the installation media. Run
startrec.exe.
B. Start Server1 from the installation media. Perform a system image recovery.
C. Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard. Start the server. Run tpm.msc.
D. Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard. Start the server from the installation media. Run
the BitLocker Recovery Password Viewer tool.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server3. The network contains a standalone server named Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012
R2. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-412 exam questions-q5

Server3 hosts an application named App1. App1 is accessible internally by using the URL https://app1.contoso.com.
App1 only supports Integrated Windows authentication.
You need to ensure that all users from the Internet are pre-authenticated before they can access App1.
What should you do?
To answer, drag the appropriate servers to the correct actions. Each server may be used once, more than once, or not
at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-412 exam questions-q5-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-412 exam questions-q5-3

Box 1: Server1 For all types of application that you can publish using AD FS preauthentication, you must add an AD FS
relying party trust to the Federation Service. Use Server1 as it has AD FS. Box 2: Server2 When publishing applications
that use Integrated Windows authentication, the Web Application Proxy server uses Kerberos constrained delegation to
authenticate users to the published application. Box 3: Server2 To publish a claims-based application
1. On the Web Application Proxy server, in the Remote Access Management console, in the Navigation pane, click Web
Application Proxy, and then in the Tasks pane, click Publish.
2. On the Publish New Application Wizard, on the Welcome page, click Next.
Box 4: Server2
Configure CAs and certificates (see 3 below)
Web Application Proxy servers require the following certificates in the certificate store on each Web Application Proxy
server:
1. A certificate whose subject covers the federation service name. If you want to use Workplace Join, the certificate
must also contain the following subject alternative names (SANs): . and enterprise
registration..
2. A wildcard certificate, a subject alternative name (SAN) certificate, several SAN certificates, or several certificates
whose subjects cover each web application.
3. A copy of the certificate issued to external servers when using client certificate preauthentication.
References: Install and Configure the Web Application Proxy Server; Planning to Publish Applications Using Web
Application Proxy; Publish Applications using AD FS Preauthentication

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Exam Ref 70-417:

This exam has been updated to cover the recent technology updates in Windows Server 2012 R2 and System Center 2012 R2. For more details, https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-417.aspx.

Microsoft 70-417 Video preparation

70-417 Microsoft Exam Free Practice Test

Come on, practice!

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1. Server1 has the Web Server (IIS) server role installed. On Server1, you install a managed service account
named Service1. You attempt to configure the World Wide Web Publishing Service as shown in the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-417 exam questions-q1

You receive the following error message:
“The account name is invalid or does not exist, or the password is invalid for the account name specified.”
You need to ensure that the World Wide Web Publishing Service can log on by using the managed service account.
What should you do?
A. Specify contoso\service1$ as the account name.
B. Specify [email protected] as the account name.
C. Reset the password for the account.
D. Enter and confirm the password for the account.
Correct Answer: A
A managed service account is designed for service applications such as Internet Information Services, SQL Server, or
Exchange to provide the following: Automatic password management, so that these services can be separated from
other services on the computer better.
Simplified SPN management Service Principal Name (SPN) that Allows service administrators to set SPNs on these
accounts.
In addition, SPN management can be delegated to other administrators.
Managed service accounts are created using PowerShell cmdlets and managed. The accounts are identified by a dollar
sign at the end of the login name. After the logon name is correct, the settings are applied and the account will have the
right to log on as a service given.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askds/2009/09/10/managed-service-accounts-understandingimplementing-best-practices-and-troubleshooting/

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server
role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in
the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-417 exam questions-q2

You need to ensure that VM1 can use more CPU time than the other virtual machines when the CPUs on Server1 are
under a heavy load.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: B
Resource controls provide you with several ways to control the way that Hyper-V allocates resources to virtual machine.
Resource control in used in the event where you need to adjust the computing resources of a virtual machine, you can
reconfigure the resources to meet the changing needs. You can also specify resource controls to automate how
resources are allocated to virtual machines.

Pass4itsure 70-417 exam questions-q2-2

References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc766320(v=ws.10).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/enus/library/hh831410.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc742470.aspx Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012:
Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p. 335

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012. The domain contains some test
client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
The computer accounts for the test computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You have a
Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 linked to OU1. GPO1 is used to assign several applications to the test
computers.
You need to ensure that when the test computers in OU1 restart, you can see which application installation is running
currently.
Which setting should you modify in GPO1? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the Get answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-417 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-417 exam questions-q3-2

The guidelines shown are located in the section Computer Configuration\Administrative Templates\System.
Directive: Show Extremely detailed status messages
This policy setting directs the system to display highly detailed status messages.
This policy setting is intended for advanced users who need this information.
If this. enable policy setting, status messages are displayed for each individual step in the startup, shutdown, logon or
logoff.
If you disable this policy setting or do not configure, only the standard system messages are displayed during these
operations.
Note: This policy setting is ignored if the setting “” Status messages to reboot, shutdown, login and logout remove “” is
enabled.
References: http://www.thewindowsclub.com/enable-verbose-status-message-windows

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 host 50 virtual machines that run
Windows Server 2012 R2.
You enable and configure enhanced session mode on Server1. You need to identify a new functionality available for the
virtual machines hosted on Server1.
What should you identify?
A. Smart card authentication using virtual machine connections
B. Redirection of RemoteFX USB drivers by using remote desktop connections
C. Redirection of RemoteFX USB drivers using virtual machine connections
D. Smart card authentication using the remote desktop client
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2012-R2-and-2012/dn282274(v=ws.11)


QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Network Access Protection (NAP) is deployed
to the domain.
You need to create NAP event trace log files on a client computer.
What should you run?
A. Register-EngineEvent
B. Tracert
C. Register-ObjectEvent
D. Logman
Correct Answer: D
Register-ObjectEvent: Monitor events generated from .Net Framework Object.
Register-EngineEvent: Subscribes to events that are generated by the Windows PowerShell engine and by the NewEvent cmdlet.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh849967.aspx
tracert: Trace IP route
logman: Manages and schedules performance counter and event trace log collections on a local and remote systems.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb490956.aspx

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Prepare Microsoft MB-320 exam with online exam questions are easy and convenient for you to pass MB-320 test.MB-320 exam is a required test for Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management,Manufacturing Functional Consultant Associate.https://www.pass4itsure.com/mb-320.html Share some Microsoft MB-320 exam questions below.

MB-320 exam questions

Newest Microsoft MB-320 Exam Questions & Answers Free(1-13)

  • Set up and configure manufacturing (30-35%)
  • Create and manage production and lean orders (25-30%)
  • Create, process, and manage production batch orders (40-45%)

Exam MB-320: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses, customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.

QUESTION 1
You are the production scheduler for a manufacturing company. You have run the Resource Group Capacity report as
shown in the Resource Group 21 Capacity exhibit. (Click the Resource Group 21 Capacity tab).

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q1

After reviewing that report, you run Resource Capacity reports as shown in the Resource 2101 and 2102 Capacity
exhibits. (Click the 2101 Capacity and 2102 Capacity tabs.)

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q1-2

You run the Gantt chart report as shown in the Gantt exhibit to determine the production orders scheduled on the
resources. (Click the Gantt tab.)

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q1-3

You need to determine the method to schedule the production lines.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q1-4

QUESTION 2
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You must use functionality in the system for group
production runs to prevent downtime and excessive cleaning of the machines on the production line.
You need to set up the system.
Which behaviors should you expect? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q2
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q2-2
QUESTION 3
A manufacturer uses route operations and job scheduling.
You use a unique calendar for a conveyor line. The company observes a decrease in the number of hours a conveyor
line resource is operational due to breakdowns. You must make a temporary change to the number of hours the
resource
is available.
You need to adjust the efficiency percentage for the conveyor line calendar.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q3
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q3
 
QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for their Lean manufacturing environment.
There has been an engineering change to a fixed quantity product that is in production. This change will add an
additional processing step as the second step. The existing version must be phased out and replaced by the new
version.
You need to ensure that the engineering change takes affect at the end of the month.
Solution:
1.) Add a new version to the existing production flow. Set the expiration date to the end of the month.
2.) Create an activity for the new process step and add it in the proper sequence
3.) Create a Kanban rule that incorporates the new activity. Set the expiration date to the end of the month.
4.) Edit the existing Kanban rule. Set the expiration date to the end of the month. Specify the new Kanban rules as the
replacement rule
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 5
A company uses warehouse management and manufacturing execution to process their production orders.
You configure the manufacturing execution production order defaults to always consume Bill of materials (BOM)
components when an operation step is completed in the job registration terminal. You create a production order. The
order is in
released status.
You need to process this order all the way through to end status.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, check the appropriate actions to the answer area and
arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q5
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q5-2
QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A manufacturing plant uses Lean process. You plan to outsource a painting operation to a subcontracting vendor. You
create a service item named SP-01 to represent the painting service.
You need to create a subcontracting activity for the painting service.
Solution:
1.) Create a purchase agreement for the subcontracting vendor and add SP-01 as the painting service
2.) Create a vendor resource then create a work cell for outsourced painting and add the resource to the work cell
3.) Create a production flow process activity for the painting work cell and add the component to be painted as a picking
activity 4.) Create a service term to tie the purchase agreement to the activity
Does this solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 7
A company manufactures high-end speakers. Customers may choose different color finishes and front grills. You build a
product configuration model to represent this speaker. You add the following attributes for the finish and grill.
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q7
You need to create a constraint that defines the allowable finish and grill combinations.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q7-2
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q7-3
QUESTION 8
A company produces lotions for pain relief and uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You have been
provided the following information for a new relieving lotion.
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q8
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q8-2
Correct Answer:
 
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q8-3
QUESTION 9
A customer produces light projection toys for holiday decorations throughout the year. Vendors have negotiated rebate
agreements as a condition of their contact. The contract also contains the visual templates required for the customer to
use in a season.
Vendor rebate agreements must only be applied if the following requirements are met: Units of measure for deliverables
are the same unit of measure as on the agreement The agreement is valid as of the date a purchase order is generated
You need to configure the vendor rebate agreements.
What should you do?
A. Set the Rebate line break type field value to Amount
B. Set the Rebate line break type field value to Quantity
C. Set the Cumulative purchase by field value to the beginning of the season date
D. Set the Unit of measure rebate option field value to Exact match
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/procurement/vendorrebates
 
 
QUESTION 10
You are the product manager at a paint manufacturing company. Paint base is produced in 100 gallon batches. The
paint base can be packaged in 1 gallon, 5 gallon, and 10 gallon containers. You want to use consolidated batch orders
for the bulk paint base item. You need to set up the items and formulas to allow for consolidated batch orders.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q10
 
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q10-2
QUESTION 11
A company is implementing Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations in their manufacturing environment. The
manufacturing process uses formulas to direct material consumption on the batch orders.
During production some items in the formula must be consumed automatically from the production area, while some
must be picked with their actual consumption reported on a pick list.
You need to determine which setup method is used for formula lines to allow for the desired mixed method picking
processes.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Leave the flushing principle blank on formula lines and set resource consumption to direct flushing principle of
materials based on consumption method for the line.
B. Leave the flushing principle blank on formula lines and set the default start value to Always for Automatic Bill of
Material Consumption.
C. Leave the flushing principle blank on formula lines and set default flushing principle on the items based on
consumption method for the item.
D. Set the flushing principle on each formula line based on consumption method for the line.
Correct Answer: AD
 
QUESTION 12
You are a manufacturing consultant helping a client test out different bill of material (BOM) and route consumption
options when starting production orders. Material and labor consumption are to be completed before Report as finish.
You are running a production order with BOM lines that have a Flushing principle set to Start. The Automatic Route
Consumption Runtime has been set to Yes.
You have set up the default Start user options for all production orders as shown in the exhibit below.
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q12
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q12-2
 
QUESTION 13
A company uses Process manufacturing.
You need to review formulas and how the different ingredient types impact the batch balancing process.
Which ingredient types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate ingredient types to the correct scenarios. Each
ingredient may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
 
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q13
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-320 exam questions q13-2

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QUESTION 1
Which call control model does MGCP use?
A. Distributed
B. Centralized
C. Ad hoc
D. Hybrid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
After you install Cisco Jabber client, it fails to register with the CUCM server. Which two actions must you take to
troubleshoot the problem?
A. verify that the name of the configuration file is correct
B. verify Layer 3 connectivity on the gateway
C. verify that the corporate firewall allows connections TO and FROM Jabber client
D. verify that the LMHOST files is installed on the PC
E. reboot CUBE gateway
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
An administrator decides to factory reset a Cisco TelePresence System EX90 after log analysis failed to provide the
reason for an intermittent one-way audio issue. What can the Administrator expect after the reset is performed?
A. The call logs are preserved.
B. The release keys and option keys are deleted.
C. The release keys and option keys are preserved.
D. The system needs to be manually powered up after the factory reset.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility enabled user attempts to log in to a
new phone where Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster Service is configured with the URL that is displayed in the
exhibit. The service is configured on a Cisco Unified CM 9.X or later Unified CM cluster. After the user enters the user
ID and PIN, the phone displays “Login is Unavailable (23).” Which configuration requirement supports Cisco EMCC and
avoids this error condition?

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-080 exam questions q4

A. The device must be subscribed to Cisco EMCC Services.
B. The given user ID is not found in the remote cluster.
C. The user must associate a device profile.
D. The Cisco IP Phone Services configuration for Cisco EMCC must set the enterprise subscription.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. A new phone was installed and currently has issues registering with Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
The phone received its IP address via DHCP, with options 3 and 150.
Which two actions would enable the phone to download its configuration automatically? (Choose two.)

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-080 exam questions q5

A. Change the phone URL parameters to IP addresses.
B. Provide DHCP option 6 to the phone via DHCP.
C. Reboot the phone.
D. Change the VLAN that the phone is assigned to.
E. Manually assign the phone settings.
F. Provide DHCP option 15 to the phone via DHCP.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters have recently been installed. One is in Tokyo and the other in
Chicago connected by a WAN link. You have started the configuration of a SIP trunk and you are integrating the dial
plans. All phones in Tokyo can call all phones in Chicago, but no phones in Chicago can call Tokyo phones. Which two
statements are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The CSS of the Chicago phones does not include the partition of the route pattern to point to Tokyo.
B. The SIP trunk in Chicago is in a CSS that is not in the partition of the Chicago phones.
C. The Tokyo SIP trunk inbound CSS does not contain the partition of the Tokyo phones.
D. Tokyo phones are in a CSS that is not in the partition of the route pattern to call from Tokyo to Chicago.
E. The SIP trunk is configured from Tokyo to Chicago, but not from Chicago to Tokyo.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which size is the jitter buffer of the Cisco MTP transcoder?
A. 10 – 30 ms
B. 45 – 60 ms
C. 20 – 40 ms
D. 25 – 50 ms
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
In a SIP direct call setup, the originating UAC sends what message to the UAS of the recipient?
A. INVITE
B. RINGING
C. ACK
D. OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are configuring Troubleshooting Perfmon Data-Logging parameters. You want to specify the Cisco recommended
file size that can be stored in a perfmon log file. What is the maximum file size value that you must specify?
A. 5 MB
B. 50 MB
C. 100 MB
D. 150 MB
E. 500 MB
F. 600 MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which value is the default value that a SIP Phone will send a keep-alive to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and
where do you modify the timers?
A. Default value 115 s SIP Profile Enterprise Parameters
B. Default value 30 s Service Parameters SIP Profile
C. Default value 3600 s SIP Security Profile SIP Profile
D. Default value 120 s Service Parameters SIP Profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have installed a Cisco Unified IP 8831 Conference phone that is failing to register. Which two actions must you take
to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose Two)
A. Verify that RJ-11 cable is plugged into the PC port.
B. Verify that the Phones network can access the option 150 server.
C. Disable HSRP on the access layer switch.
D. Verify that the correct drivers are installed on the switch port of the phone.
E. Verify that the switch port of the phone is enabled.
F. Check the RJ-65 cable.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Jabber for Windows or MAC Soft Client fails to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. This excerpt is
seen in the client logs: Warning- Registration period received (120) minus confgured timer_register_delta (120) is less
than 20 seconds.

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-080 exam questions q12

Which configuration item needs to be adjusted to correct this condition?
A. UCM Device Assigned SIP Profile “2XX Expiry Timer”
B. UCM Service Parameter “Station KeepAlive Interval”
C. UCM Device Assigned SIP Profile “Timer Register Delta”
D. “KeepAlive_Timer” parameter in jabber-config.xml file
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Users in your enterprise can establish PSTN calls, but users notice that when they attempt to perform a transfer the call
FAILS. Which two actions must you take to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Verify that media resources are assigned to the transcoder
B. verify that MTP resources are registered with CUCM
C. restart CUCM services
D. Use RTMT Performance monitoring to verify that an MTP device is available to support supplementary services
E. restart Cisco Serviceabilty tool
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
You deploy a computer running Windows Server 2016 in your perimeter network. You want to use this computer to
route traffic between the Internet and your network.
Which role do you need to configure?
To answer, select the appropriate role in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q1-2

Network Controller is a highly available and scalable server role, and provides one application programming interface
(API) that allows Network Controller to communicate with the network, and a second API that allows you to
communicate with Network Controller.

QUESTION 2
Which DNS record type specifies the host that is the authority for a given domain?
A. NS
B. MX
C. CNAME
D. SOA
Correct Answer: D
The start of authority (SOA) resource record indicates the name of origin for the zone and contains the name of the
server that is the primary source for information about the zone. It also indicates other basic properties of the zone.

QUESTION 3
Match each IP address to its corresponding IPv4 address class.
To answer, drag the appropriate IP address from the column on the left to its IPv4 address class on the right. Each IP
address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Which of the following uses a tunneling protocol?
A. Internet
B. VPN
C. Extranet
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: B
Tunneling enables the encapsulation of a packet from one type of protocol within the datagram of a different protocol.
For example, VPN uses PPTP to encapsulate IP packets over a public network, such as the Internet.

QUESTION 5
What is a similarity between Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches?
A. Both provide a high level of security to the network.
B. Both use logical addressing to forward transmissions.
C. Both forward packets onto the network.
D. Both allow the implementation of VLANs.
Correct Answer: D
A single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so
that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area
network, virtual LAN or VLAN.
LANs are layer 2 constructs, so they can be supported by both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches.
Incorrect:
Not A: Layer 2 switches do not provide high level of security.
Not B: Another name for logical address is IP address. Only Layer 3 switches uses IP address. Layer 2 switches uses
MAC addresses.
Not C: only Layer 3 switches forward packets on the network (like routers).

QUESTION 6
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They can logically address packets by using IP.
B. They require a router to connect to VLANs on another switch.
C. They compartmentalize a network and isolate traffic.
D. They are efficient because a single switch can implement only a single VLAN.
E. They act as though they are on the same LAN regardless of physical location.
Correct Answer: BCE
VLANs provide the following advantages:
*
(E) VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. …
*
VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. …
*
(C) Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not
intended for them.
*
(B) If a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the endstations of the other VLANs.

QUESTION 8
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q9-2

You are studying for finals in the student lounge. When your laptop is connected to the wireless network, access to the
Internet is slow. When you plug your laptop into a wall jack, you can no longer access the Internet at all. You run the
ipconfig /all command. The results are shown in the following image:


Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q9-3

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q10-2

QUESTION 11
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
Match each network type to its corresponding definition.
To answer, drag the appropriate network type from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each network type
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 98-366 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
The command-line tool used to list a host\\’s active incoming connections is:
A. NETSTAT
B. IPCONFIG
C. NSLOOKUP
D. PING
Correct Answer: A
Used without parameters, netstat displays active TCP connections.
Note: Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP
routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP
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CheckPoint 156-215.80 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. WebUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartReporter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Choose the Best place to find a Security Management Server backup file named backup_fw, on a Check Point
Appliance.
A. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tgs
B. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tar
C. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backups/backup_fw.tar
D. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
Correct Answer: D
Gaia\\’s Backup feature allows backing up the configuration of the Gaia OS and of the Security Management server
database, or restoring a previously saved configuration. The configuration is saved to a .tgz file in the following
directory:

pass4itsure 156-215.80 exam question q2

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?action=portlets.SearchResultMainActionandeventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk91400

QUESTION 3
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one
of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the
company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see
what the problem may be?
A. Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller
B. Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet
C. Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet
D. Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager\\’s tablet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What SmartEvent component creates events?
A. Consolidation Policy
B. Correlation Unit
C. SmartEvent Policy
D. SmartEvent GUI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT
A. Download Center Web site
B. UserUpdate
C. User Center
D. Check Point DVD
Correct Answer: B
Packages and licenses are loaded into these repositories from several sources:
the Download Center web site (packages)
the Check Point DVD (packages)
the User Center (licenses)
by importing a file (packages and licenses)
by running the cplic command line
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

QUESTION 6
Fill in the blank: RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client
A. Destination
B. Identity
C. Payload
D. Location
Correct Answer: B
How RADIUS Accounting Works with Identity Awareness
RADIUS Accounting gets identity data from RADIUS Accounting Requests generated by the RADIUS accounting client.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62050

QUESTION 7
Where can you trigger a failover of the cluster members?
1.
Log in to Security Gateway CLI and run command clusterXL_admin down.
2.
In SmartView Monitor right-click the Security Gateway member and select Cluster member down.
3.
Log into Security Gateway CLI and run command cphaprob down.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Correct Answer: C
How to Initiate Failover Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

pass4itsure 156-215.80 exam question q7

QUESTION 8
Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However,
in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.
A. Accept; redirect
B. Accept; drop
C. Redirect; drop
D. Drop; accept
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?
A. I have changed this rule
B. Someone else has changed this rule
C. This rule is managed by check point\\’s SOC
D. This rule can\\’t be changed as it\\’s an implied rule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP
address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to
another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway
before shipping it?
1.
Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.
2.
Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.
3.
Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.
4.
Click the Communication button in the Gateway object\\’s General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize
and OK.
5.
Install the Security Policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.
C. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new
products.
D. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
A. write mem
B. show config -f
C. save config -o
D. save configuration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk102234

QUESTION 13
Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____
license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.
A. Formal; corporate
B. Local; formal
C. Local; central
D. Central; local
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

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ISC CSSLP Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network.
Users report that they are unable to log on to the network. Mark finds that accounts are locked out due to multiple
incorrect log on attempts. What is the most likely cause of the account lockouts?
A. Spoofing
B. Brute force attack
C. SYN attack
D. PING attack
Correct Answer: B
Brute force attack is the most likely cause of the account lockouts. In a brute force attack, unauthorized users attempt to
log on to a network or a computer by using multiple possible user names and passwords. Windows 2000 and other
network operating systems have a security feature that locks a user account if the number of failed logon attempts occur
within a specified period of time, based on the security policy lockout settings. Answer: A is incorrect. Spoofing is a
technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email
address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else\\’s IP address to hide
his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the
source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer: C is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers
running on the TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol-level attack that can render a computer\\’s network services unavailable.
A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer: D is incorrect. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo
requests to another computer, it is known as a PING attack.

QUESTION 2
There are seven risks responses that a project manager can choose from. Which risk response is appropriate for both
positive and negative risk events?
A. Acceptance
B. Transference
C. Sharing
D. Mitigation
Correct Answer: A
Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and
low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance
response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be
changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance
response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance
response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate
the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they
occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a positive
risk response that shares an opportunity for all parties involved in the risk event. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is
a negative risk event that transfers the risk ownership to a third party, such as vendor, through a contractual
relationship. Answer: D is incorrect. Mitigation is a negative risk event that seeks to lower the probability and/or impact
of a risk event.

QUESTION 3
Fill in the blank with the appropriate security mechanism. is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language
construct which handles the occurrence of exceptional events.
A. Exception handling
Correct Answer: A
Exception handling is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct that handles the
occurrence of events. These events occur during the software execution process and interrupt the instruction flow.
Exception handling performs the specific activities for managing the exceptional events.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user\\’s authentication
credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user\\’s data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Correct Answer: C
Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user\\’s authentication credentials be verified by the
database before providing access to that user\\’s data. Answer: D is incorrect. Account lockout implements a limit on the
incorrect password attempts to protect an account from automated password-guessing attacks. Answer: B is incorrect.
Authenticated session allows a user to access more than one access-restricted Web page without re- authenticating
every page. It also integrates user authentication into the basic session model. Answer: A is incorrect. Secure assertion
distributes application-specific sanity checks throughout

QUESTION 5
An assistant from the HR Department calls you to ask the Service Hours and Maintenance Slots for your ERP system.
In which document will you most probably find this information?
A. Service Level Agreement
B. Release Policy
C. Service Level Requirements
D. Underpinning Contract
Correct Answer: A
You will most probably find this information in the Service Level Agreement document. Amongst other information, SLA
contains information about the agreed Service Hours and maintenance slots for any particular Service. Service Level
Agreement (frequently abbreviated as SLA) is a part of a service contract where the level of service is formally defined.
In practice, the term SLA is sometimes used to refer to the contracted delivery time (of the service) or performance.
Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the
other is the service provider. This can be a legally binding formal or informal \\’contract\\’. Contracts between the Service
Provider and other third parties are often (incorrectly) called SLAs, as the level of service has been set by the (principal)
customer there can be no \\’agreement\\’ between third parties (these agreements are simply a \\’contract\\’). Operating
Level Agreements or OLA(s) however, may be used by internal groups to support SLA(s). Answer: B is incorrect.
Release Policy is a set of rules for deploying releases into the live operational environment, defining different
approaches for releases depending on their urgency and impact. Answer: C is incorrect. The Service Level
Requirements document contains the requirements for a service from the client viewpoint, defining detailed service level
targets, mutual responsibilities, and other requirements specific to a certain group of customers. Answer: D is incorrect.
Underpinning Contract (UC) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party. In another way, it is an
agreement between the IT organization and an external provider about the delivery of one or more services. The third
party provides services that support the delivery of a service to a customer. The Underpinning Contract defines targets
and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA.

QUESTION 6
You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. You want to verify that the build meets its data requirements, and
correctly generates each expected display and report. Which of the following tests will help you to perform the above
task?
A. Performance test
B. Functional test
C. Reliability test
D. Regression test
Correct Answer: B
The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the
verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in
the
subsequent builds. Functional test:
These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates
each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of
each
build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.
B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.
C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper
coding standards.
D. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.
Correct Answer: ABC
The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-
consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should
implement the functions that are defined in the software specification. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden
assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than
a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies
should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it
is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should
use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object
inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and
the minimum number of exit points.

QUESTION 8
You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following tools will you use to look outside your own
organization to examine how others achieve their performance levels, and what processes they use to reach those
levels?
A. Benchmarking
B. Six Sigma
C. ISO 9001:2000
D. SEI-CMM
Correct Answer: A
Benchmarking is the tool used by system assessment process to provide a point of reference by which performance
measurements can be reviewed with respect to other organizations. Benchmarking is also recognized as Best Practice
Benchmarking or Process Benchmarking. It is a process used in management and mostly useful for strategic
management. It is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time,
productivity, or quality to another that is widely considered to be an industry standard benchmark or best practice. It
allows organizations to develop plans on how to implement best practice with the aim of increasing some aspect of
performance. Benchmarking might be a onetime event, although it is frequently treated as a continual process in which
organizations continually seek out to challenge their practices. It allows organizations to develop plans on how to make
improvements or adapt specific best practices, usually with the aim of increasing some aspect of performance. Answer:
C is incorrect. The ISO 9001:2000 standard combines the three standards 9001, 9002, and 9003 into one, called 9001.
Design and development procedures are required only if a company does in fact engage in the creation of new
products. The 2000 version sought to make a radical change in thinking by actually placing the concept of process
management front and center (“Process management” was the monitoring and optimizing of a company\\’s tasks and
activities, instead of just inspecting the final product). The ISO 9001:2000 version also demands involvement by upper
executives, in order to integrate quality into the business system and avoid delegation of quality functions to junior
administrators. Another goal is to improve effectiveness via process performance metrics numerical measurement of the
effectiveness of tasks and activities. Expectations of continual process improvement and tracking customer satisfaction
were made explicit. Answer: B is incorrect. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, initially implemented by
Motorola. As of 2009 it enjoys widespread application in many sectors of industry, although its application is not without
controversy. Six Sigma seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the causes of
defects and variability in manufacturing and business processes. It uses a set of quality management methods,
including statistical methods, and creates a special infrastructure of people within the organization (“Black Belts”, “Green
Belts”, etc.) who are experts in these methods. Each Six Sigma project carried out within an organization follows a
defined sequence of steps and has quantified financial targets (cost reduction or profit increase). The often used Six
Sigma symbol is as follows:

pass4itsure CSSLP exam question q8

Answer: D is incorrect. Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) was created by Software Engineering Institute
(SEI). CMMI in software engineering and organizational development is a process improvement approach that provides
organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement. It can be used to guide process
improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization. CMMI can help integrate traditionally separate
organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and
provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. CMMI is now the de facto standard for measuring the
maturity of any process. Organizations can be assessed against the CMMI model using Standard CMMI Appraisal
Method for Process Improvement (SCAMPI).

QUESTION 9
Which of the following test methods has the objective to test the IT system from the viewpoint of a threat-source and to
identify potential failures in the IT system protection schemes?
A. Security Test and Evaluation (STandE)
B. Penetration testing
C. Automated vulnerability scanning tool
D. On-site interviews
Correct Answer: B

The goal of penetration testing is to examine the IT system from the perspective of a threat-source, and to identify
potential failures in the IT system protection schemes. Penetration testing, when performed in the risk assessment
process, is used to assess an IT system\\’s capability to survive with the intended attempts to thwart system security.
Answer: A is incorrect. The objective of STandE is to ensure that the applied controls meet the approved security
specification for the software and hardware and implement the organization\\’s security policy or meet industry
standards.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de- obfuscation tool so that it
cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?
A. Preventive transformation
B. Data obfuscation
C. Control obfuscation
D. Layout obfuscation
Correct Answer: A
Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot

QUESTION 11
The DARPA paper defines various procedural patterns to perform secure system development practices. Which of the
following patterns does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Hidden implementation
B. Document the server configuration
C. Patch proactively
D. Red team the design
E. Password propagation
Correct Answer: BCD
The following procedural patterns are defined by the DARPA paper in order to perform secure software development
practices: Build the server from the ground up: It includes the following features: Build the server from the ground up.
Identify the default installation of the operating system and applications. Support hardening procedures to remove
unnecessary services. Identify a vulnerable service for ongoing risk management. Choose the right stuff: It defines
guidelines to select right commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components and decide whether to use and build custom
components. Document the server configuration: It supports the creation of an initial configuration baseline and tracks
all modifications made to servers and application configurations. Patch proactively: It supports in applying patches as
soon as they are available rather than waiting until the systems cooperate. Red team the design: It supports an
independent security assessment from the perspective of an attacker in the quality assurance or testing stage. An
independent security assessment is helpful in addressing a security issue before it occurs. Answer: A is incorrect.
Hidden implementation pattern is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to software assurance in
general. Hidden implementation limits the ability of an attacker to distinguish the internal workings of an application.
Answer: E is incorrect. Password propagation is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to aspects
of authentication in a Web application. Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user\\’s
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user\\’s data.

QUESTION 12
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that
conceives the risks even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants
to know that what is a residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?
A. It is a risk that remains because no risk response is taken.
B. It is a risk that can not be addressed by a risk response.
C. It is a risk that will remain no matter what type of risk response is offered.
D. It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken.
Correct Answer: D
Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual
risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers
even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent
risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement
about residual risks. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: A is incorrect.
This is not a valid statement about residual risks.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following processes describes the elements such as quantity, quality, coverage, timelines, and availability,
and categorizes the different functions that the system will need to perform in order to gather the documented mission/
business needs?
A. Human factors
B. Functional requirements
C. Performance requirements
D. Operational scenarios
Correct Answer: B
The functional requirements categorize the different functions that the system will need to perform in order to gather the
documented mission/business needs. The functional requirements describe the elements such as quantity, quality,
coverage, timelines, and availability. Answer: C is incorrect. The performance requirements comprise of speed,
throughput, accuracy, humidity tolerances, mechanical stresses such as vibrations or noises. Answer: A is incorrect.
Human factor consists of factors, which affect the operation of the system or component, such as design space, eye
movement, or ergonomics. Answer: D is incorrect. The operational scenarios provide assistance to the system
designers and form the basis of major events in the acquisition phases, such as testing the products for system
integration. The customer classifies and defines the operational scenarios, which indicate the range of anticipated uses
of system products.

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You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the CSSLP exam. “CSSLP certification recognizes leading application security skills. It shows employers and peers you have the advanced technical skills and knowledge necessary for authentication, authorization, and auditing throughout the SDLC using best practices, policies, and procedures established by the cybersecurity experts at (ISC)²”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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