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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits:
Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
400-101 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are
inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%. For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected). For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-
25%-25%. This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
Question No : 12. Following the installation of the Symposium Express 3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?
A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.
B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.
C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
400-101 vce Answer: C
Question No : 13. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client (04.00.037.00 to 04.02.011.04 inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?
A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.
B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.
C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package “CRTEmplates.msi”.
Answer: D
Question No : 14. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: “could not create database”. Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?
A. Key the database in by hand.

B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.
C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.
D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Question No : 15. A field engineer at a customer’s site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?
A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.
B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.
C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions and re-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.
D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.
Answer:A
Question No : 16. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?
A. Onto a remote directory of a network computer
B. Only onto an application server other than the original server
C. Only onto the same application server where the backup was created
D. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 17. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?
A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.

B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.
C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.
D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.
Answer: D
Question No : 18. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?
A. config.sys
B. lmhost table
C. command.com
D. autoexec.bat
400-101 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 19. The field engineer is preparing to use the “import configuration data” wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the “import configuration data” wizard?
A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.
C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
Answer:A
Question No : 20. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?
A. TCP/IP on the PBX switch
B. TCP/IP on the TAPI Server
C. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RAS

D. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server
400-101 vce Answer: C

Question No : 21. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?
A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.
B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.
D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.
Answer: C

 

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 8 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
  agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
300-170 exam Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 9 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A
QUESTION 10 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
300-170 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an organization’s integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant B.
Involvement in product design C.
Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
300-170 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier’s strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
production, and engineering.
Answer: C
QUESTION 14 If a supplier’s level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer’s company at the supplier’s plant

B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer’s company’s quality control department
D. Label “Quality of Material is Critical” on the purchase order
300-170 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 15 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76 centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3 standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20 centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
300-170 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following situations must be corrected FIRST to ensure successful information security governance within an organization?
A. The information security department has difficulty filling vacancies.
B. The chief information officer (CIO) approves security policy changes.
C. The information security oversight committee only meets quarterly.
D. The data center manager has final signoff on all security projects.
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A steering committee should be in place to approve all security projects. The fact that the data center manager has final signoff for all security projects indicates that a steering committee is not being used and that information security is relegated to a subordinate place in the organization. This would indicate a failure of information security governance. It is not inappropriate for an oversight or steering committee to meet quarterly. Similarly, it may be desirable to have the chief information officer (CIO) approve the security policy due to the size of the organization and frequency of updates. Difficulty in filling vacancies is not uncommon due to the shortage of good, qualified information security professionals.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following requirements would have the lowest level of priority in information security?
A. Technical
B. Regulatory
C. Privacy
D. Business
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security priorities may, at times, override technical specifications, which then must be rewritten to conform to minimum security standards. Regulatory and privacy requirements are government mandated and, therefore, not subject to override. The needs of the business should always take precedence in deciding information security priorities.
QUESTION 20
When an organization hires a new information security manager, which of the following goals should this individual pursue FIRST?
A. Develop a security architecture
B. Establish good communication with steering committee members
C. Assemble an experienced staff
D. Benchmark peer organizations
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New information security managers should seek to build rapport and establish lines of communication with senior management to enlist their support. Benchmarking peer organizations is beneficial to better understand industry best practices, but it is secondary to obtaining senior management support. Similarly, developing a security architecture and assembling an experienced staff are objectives that can be obtained later.
QUESTION 21
It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security architecture should always be properly aligned with business goals and objectives. Alignment with IT plans or industry and security best practices is secondary by comparison.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines

D. Standards
300-170 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.
QUESTION 23
Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks.
B. evaluations in trade publications.
C. use of new and emerging technologies.
D. benefits in comparison to their costs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most fundamental evaluation criterion for the appropriate selection of any security technology is its ability to reduce or eliminate business risks. Investments in security technologies should be based on their overall value in relation to their cost; the value can be demonstrated in terms of risk mitigation. This should take precedence over whether they use new or exotic technologies or how they are evaluated in trade publications.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes?
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Policies
D. Guidelines
300-170 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes.
QUESTION 25
The MOST important factor in planning for the long-term retention of electronically stored business records is to take into account potential changes in:
A. storage capacity and shelf life.
B. regulatory and legal requirements.
C. business strategy and direction.
D. application systems and media.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Long-term retention of business records may be severely impacted by changes in application systems and media. For example, data stored in nonstandard formats that can only be read and interpreted by previously decommissioned applications may be difficult, if not impossible, to recover. Business strategy and direction do not generally apply, nor do legal and regulatory requirements. Storage capacity and shelf life are important but secondary issues.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is characteristic of decentralized information security management across a geographically dispersed organization?
A. More uniformity in quality of service
B. Better adherence to policies
C. Better alignment to business unit needs
D. More savings in total operating costs
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Decentralization of information security management generally results in better alignment to business unit needs. It is generally more expensive to administer due to the lack of economies of scale. Uniformity in quality of service tends to vary from unit to unit.
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position to sponsor the design and implementation of a new security infrastructure in a large global enterprise?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief operating officer (COO)
C. Chief privacy officer (CPO)
D. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The chief operating officer (COO) is most knowledgeable of business operations and objectives. The chief privacy officer (CPO) and the chief legal counsel (CLC) may not have the knowledge of the day- to-day business operations to ensure proper guidance, although they have the same influence within the organization as the COO. Although the chief security officer (CSO) is knowledgeable of what is needed, the sponsor for this task should be someone with far-reaching influence across the organization.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following would be the MOST important goal of an information security governance program?
A. Review of internal control mechanisms
B. Effective involvement in business decision making
C. Total elimination of risk factors
D. Ensuring trust in data
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The development of trust in the integrity of information among stakeholders should be the primary goal of
  information security governance. Review of internal control mechanisms relates more to auditing, while the total elimination of risk factors is not practical or possible. Proactive involvement in business decision making implies that security needs dictate business needs when, in fact, just the opposite is true. Involvement in decision making is important only to ensure business data integrity so that data can be trusted.
QUESTION 29
Relationships among security technologies are BEST defined through which of the following?
A. Security metrics
B. Network topology
C. Security architecture
D. Process improvement models
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security architecture explains the use and relationships of security mechanisms. Security metrics measure improvement within the security practice but do not explain the use and relationships of security technologies. Process improvement models and network topology diagrams also do not describe the use and relationships of these technologies.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 25
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input
to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have
studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants
you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and
impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve

300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project
execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives,
which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management
Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which
of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 32
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his
organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to
help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees
that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is
most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.

B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 34
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
QUESTION 35
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on
several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many
risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high
risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there
any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to
Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are
small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk
events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree
Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine
overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response
that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to
cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
That fact that minor changes in customer demand can become exaggerated as that demand is
communicated up that supply chain is referred to as:
A. embellished effect
B. amplification effect
C. bullwhip effect
D. inflation effect
300-360 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
According to the supply management, one of the most useful ways to develop
Is to begin with an inventory report listing all items in descending order of
dollar spent.
A. Top-down classification
B. Slope classification
C. Gradient classification
D. ABC classification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
A physical stock checking system in which the inventory is divided into groups that are
physically counted at predetermined intervals is called:
A. Continuous inventory
B. Cycle counting
C. Reconciliation
D. None of the above
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The inventory reporting measures format is typically presented in which of the following way?
A. weeks of supply
B. average aggregate inventory
C. inventory turnover
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is NOT the component used to calculate the inventory holding costs?
A. Released rates
B. Invested funds
C. Shrinkage
D. Obsolescence
300-360 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
With what an organization’s inventory values are kept continuously in line with its actual
inventory on hand?
A. Services inventory control system
B. Perpetual inventory control system
C. Periodic inventory control system
D. Temporary inventory control system
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
A term used to describe a ‘one piece flow’ business strategy that allows an organization to
establish a continuous sequencing of product, within a flow process is known as:
A. Flow manufacturing
B. Inventory scheduling
C. Just-in-time scheduling
D. Online scheduling
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
A progressive approach to control inventory is called:

A. Materials inventory
B. Delays in production approach
C. Supplier-managed inventory
D. Depleted control approach
Answer: C
QUESTION: 47
The term most often used to refer to the role of logistics in product returns, source reduction,
recycling, materials substitution, reuse of materials, waster disposal, and refurbishing, repair an
remanufacturing is known as:
A. Multichannel logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Rearrange Materials logistics
D. Switch State art logistics
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
An intermediary who brings the buyer and the seller together is the:
A. Dealer
B. their-party specialist
C. public surplus
D. Broker
Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
Applying the value of existing equipment against the purchase of new is referred to as:
A. Bidding

B. Trade-in
C. Action
D. Equipment sales
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
A lean manufacturing technique in which the transformation of materials is traced from
beginning to end to determine if there is waste in the process is called:
A. Value stream mapping
B. State map technique
C. Fair market value mapping
D. Customized stream mapping
Answer: A
QUESTION: 51
New product ideas fall into following categories except:
A. Breakthrough ideas
B. Incremental ideas
C. Derivative ideas
D. Production ideas
300-360 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
A tool used to develop the technical specifications necessary to meet customer requirements is
called:
A. Quality function deployment
B. Quality forecast
C. Quality Matrix
D. House of Quality

Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
happens when one or more existing competitors realize an opportunity to improve
their position or when they are responding to the pressure from other competitors.
A. Substitute bargaining
B. Antagonism
C. Rivalry
D. Business Conflict
300-360 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 54
A standard of point of reference used in measuring or judging an organization’s performance
according to selected criteria is called:
A. Performance assessment
B. Benchmarking
C. Process revelation
D. None of the above
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55
Which of the following essentially translate an organization’s business plan into an operation
plan?
A. Requirement plan
B. Staffing plan
C. Capital investment plan
D. Services resources

Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The amount of reserve capacity that a firm maintains to handle sudden increases in demand or
temporary losses of production capacity is called:
A. Capacity cushion
B. Capacity capability
C. Capacity staffing
D. Capacity board
Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
The process which begins by understanding the product such as its value, its physical
characteristics such as length, height, width, and weight and its fragility is called:
A. Packaging optimization
B. Product optimization
C. Process Throughput
D. Flood flow gain
300-360 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 58
A practice that involves purchasing professional in the new product or service development
process from its inception is called:
A. Service level professionalism
B. Statement of work flow
C. Early purchasing Improvement
D. Initializing consent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
What is used to obtain general information about products, services or suppliers and is
information request, not binding on either the supplier or the purchaser?
A. Procurement document
B. Solicitation document
C. Target market
D. Qualified product description
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
What involves taking out an investment that will specifically reduce or cancel out the risk in
another investment?
A. Operational strategy
B. Situational factor
C. Hedging strategy
D. Optimization strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
Two back-to-back quarters of negative gross domestic product growth is referred to as:
A. Recession
B. Hunch
C. Nose-dive
D. Obsolescence
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 6
Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online. Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Your client wants to use Google AdWords’ ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video ad for your customer?
A. You’ll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You’ll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
400-351 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her. How can the SEO firm now manage Beth’s account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth’s account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth’s account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth’s account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
400-351 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It’s calculated using a variety of factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user’s search query.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
400-351 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You’re serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client, is new to Web-based business sales and he’s concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his ad for a short period of time. What’s the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best explanation of Google’s double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar businesses.
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network. How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network – once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she’s hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery. She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad – rather than advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
400-351 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Linda has a discount clothing store and she’d like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred’s ad to be displayed?
A. Car that’s been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
Your client wants to be ranked number one in Google search listings on the keyword golf. How can Google AdWords helps this goal?
A. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if the client enrolls in the Google Organic Search program and the GoogleAdWords program.
B. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if their ad uses the same keywords on the client’s Website.
C. Participation in Google AdWords will not help the client’s organic search results.
D. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
What tool can you use with Google AdWords to determine how much time customers spend on your site after they click your ad?
A. Google Analytics
B. Google Pack
C. Google Translate
D. Google Trends for Websites
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Wendy has created a new Google AdWords account and she has selected her time zone as EST. Wendy later realizes that she should have selected the time zone as PST. How can Wendy change the time zone in her Google AdWords account?
A. Wendy can change the time zone as Administrative account in the Account Settings.
B. Wendy can’t change the time zone without calling the Google AdWords support center.
C. Shecannot. Once the time zone is set, it cannot be changed.
D. Wendy can change the time zone as an Administrative account through Options/Settings.
Answer: C

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The Cloud Remains the Main Focus of Oracle’s Earnings

Oracle Cloud provides a complete SaaS application suite for ERP,HCM and CX, plus the best database platform for Americas, Europe and Asia Data Center (PaaS) and infrastructure as services (IaaS). While this is a quiet time for the company, the technology giant Oracle is one of the exceptions, reporting earnings for the second quarter of fiscal year 2018 after Thursday’s market shutdown on December 14. Oracle’s cloud division has been a constant focus for analysts and CEOs, and Safra Catz has attributed the company’s recent revenue and revenue growth to the sector’s performance. Oracle reported in the first quarter of fiscal year 2018 that the total revenue of cloud computing rose 51% per cent to $1.47 billion, excluding the effects of foreign exchange.

oracle news

Oracle Sets-Oracle Identity Security Operations Center (SOC) service portfolio and Oracle Management cloud-first unveiled at Oracle Global Conference to help businesses anticipate, reduce, detect and resolve security threats, and help repair applications and infrastructure performance questions Oracle sets use artificial intelligence to analyze a unified data set composed of security and operational telemetry, and to provide automated fixes designed to enable customers to quickly adjust their security and operational status as the risk changes. This application of machine learning may help prevent attacks, shortening the detection window from months to minutes

In its cloud department, Oracle reports the fastest growing portion of the software as a service. Revenue from the sector grew 62% to $1.07 billion year-on-year. Another two parts of its cloud division, “Platform services and infrastructure services”, rose 28% to $400 million. For the second quarter of fiscal year 2018, management said they expected the cloud’s revenues to grow within 39% to 43%.

Based on our advanced AI and automation technologies, the Oracle Identity SOC Portfolio now provides cloud local identity governance and adaptive security designed to protect customer cloud and digital services. In addition to strengthening internal security monitoring, Oracle’s comprehensive cross stack threat detection capability provides a wide range of threat detection, reduces noise from false positives, and is highly accurate in detecting and repairing the enterprise’s most important it asset threats.

oracle news

Another area where analysts may be looking for more information is some of the company’s new products and how these new products develop. At the beginning of October, Oracle launched an autonomous database cloud using machine learning to “eliminate and adjust, repair, update and maintain database-related human costs.” It also introduced the block-chain cloud service. The Oracle Identity Soc portfolio now includes new automated identity governance for hybrid clouds, expanded consumer identity management, machine learning-driven configuration management, and enhanced AI capabilities.

Oracle has announced the first cloud-local identity governance service for a mixed cloud environment, which will be fully integrated into Oracle’s SaaS applications, the Oracle Identity SOC portfolio (including Oracle Identity cloud Services and Oracle CASB Cloud Services), and Oracle Management cloud. Through the Oracle CASB Cloud Service’s smart machine learning and cloud application risk feeds, this combination helps to provide a better user experience for identity governance and traditional process and evaluation automation, all with a secure and operational telemetry environment from local and hybrid systems.

The Oracle CASB Cloud service also now includes risk-based Cloud access control to help organizations reduce the risk of cloud applications. New controls can help manage configuration changes or application access based on rich contexts, including device type, geographic location, and dynamic risk scoring. Together, these factors are designed to help prevent user access based on stolen credentials and to reduce the risk of abuse of cloud application administrator privileges.

oracle news

Second quarter earnings and revenue forecasts
Oracle is expected to yield $0.68 per share after a correction, up from $0.61 a year earlier, to $9.55 billion in revenue and 5.3% Year-on-year, according to a third-party consensus analyst. In the past four quarters, ORCL’s earnings forecasts have all exceeded expectations and three are revenue forecasts.

Excluding the effects of foreign exchange, management’s guidelines for the quarter are 2% to 4% of total revenue, with non-GAAP earning between $0.64 and $0.68 per share. Including the impact of foreign exchange, chief executive Safra Catz said that if interest rates remained at the level of the guidelines issued by mid-September, non-GAAP earnings per share could have a positive impact of up to 2 cents, up from $0.66 to $0.70.

Related Oracle News:https://www.forbes.com/sites/jjkinahan/2017/12/13/oracle-earnings-preview-cloud-remains-a-primary-focus-for-analysts/#5ed54a523c94

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but
is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the
login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description

D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network
administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be
done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip
address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While
debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces
Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

300-115 dumps

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration
from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the
existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to
complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?

300-115 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is
configured with EtherChannel mode active.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Test Questions Helps You Preparing The Best Windows Server Certification Video Training

Do you want to quickly get Microsoft certification 70-410 dumps?”Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012” also known as 70-410 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Most accurate Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam test questions helps you preparing the best Windows Server Certification video training. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam questions answers are updated (503 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 60
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has two physical disks installed. The C: drive hosts the boot partition, while the D: drive is not being used. Both disks are online. You have received instructions to create a virtual machine on L2P-SR07. Subsequent to creating the virtual machine, you
have to connect the D: drive to the virtual machine. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connecting a physical disk to a virtual machine?
A. The physical disk should not be online.
B. The physical disk should be uninstalled and re-installed.
C. The physical disk should be configured as a striped disk.
D. The physical disk should be configured as a mirrored disk.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File Server server role installed. On Server1, you create a share named Documents. You need to ensure that users can recover files that they accidently delete from Documents. What should you do?
A. Enable shadow copies by using Computer Management.
B. Modify the Startup type of the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) by using the Services console.
C. Create a recovery partition by using Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
D. Create a storage pool that contains a two-way mirrored volume by using Server Manager.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to obtain an IPv4 address by using DHCP. You need to configure the IPv4 settings of the network connection on Server1 as follows:
– IP address: 10.1.1.1
– Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
– Default gateway: 10.1.1.254
What should you run?
A. netsh.exe
B. netcfg.exe
C. msconfig.exe
D. ipconfig.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three member servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
70-410 dumps

All client computers run Windows 8. All client computers receive updates from Server2. On Servers, you add a shared printer named Printer1. Printer1 uses a Type 4 driver that is not included in the Windows 8 installation media. You need to ensure that when users connect to the printer for the first time, the printer driver is installed automatically on their client computer. What should you do?
A. From the Windows Deployment Services console on Server1, add the driver package for Printer1.
B. From the Update Services console on Server2, import and approve updates.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server3, run the Add-PrinterDriver cmdlet.
D. From the Print Management console on Server3, add additional drivers for Printer1.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 computer accounts in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A user account named User1 is in an OU named OU2. You are configuring a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right to all of the computer
accounts in OU1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link GPO1 to OU1.
B. Link GPO1 to OU2.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.

D. From User Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
E. From Computer Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes what happens when facility backup fast reroute is enabled for a LSP? Choose three answers.
A. Each PLR will signal a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop node or link.
B. When a failure occurs, the PLR will push an additional label onto the label stack and start forwarding traffic onto its bypass tunnel.
C. The ingress router will include a RRO object in the path message to indicate the routers that should be PLRs and MPs along the protected path.
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish bypass tunnels.
E. When the bypass tunnel is in use, the MP will include the RRO object in its PathErr message, with the
local protection in use flag set to notify the ingress router that it is using the bypass tunnel.
70-410 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 67
True or False? MPLS may use an existing data link layer header field to identify a label, instead of using a specific MPLS header
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Which one of the following statements regarding the detour object transported in the detour path message is true?
A. The PLR sends it downstream with the RRO.
B. The PLR sends it downstream with the ERO.
C. It associates all detours with the source PLR.
D. The MP sends it upstream with the RESV message.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Most Important Cisco 600-510 Dumps Exam Youtube Study Guide Developing with Network Programmability

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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Q&As: 112

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1. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 exam Answer: BCDEFG
2. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C
3. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 dumps Answer: EFG
4. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400
product families?
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
5. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all
request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be
saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http

C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
600-510 pdf Answer: D
6. A UDP application is considered down if the server returns:
A. No packet
B. A garbage packet
C. An UDP probe packet
D. An ICMP unreachable packet
Answer: D
7. An active health check is done:
A. At each user request
B. According to the configured time values
C. When the Reassign-Threshold is exceeded
D. When there is a status change from the server
600-510 vce Answer: B
8. An HTTP health check can return:
A. A keepalive
B. Status code
C. Content verification
D. A value to increment the Reassign-Threshold
Answer: BC
9. Which of the following Health Check types are performed at Layer 7?
A. Arp Request
B. TCP C.
HTTP D.
IMAP4
E. UDP F.
LDAP G.
MMS H.
RSTP
600-510 exam Answer: CDFG
10. How many simultaneous levels of health checks can be configured on the ServerIron to health check
the same real server
A. Layer 3, Layer4

B. Layer4, Layer7
C. Layer3, Layer4, Layer7, content match
D. Layer 4, Layer7, content match
Answer: B
11. What will be the corresponding Virtual MAC Address belonging to a configured VIP 175.30.15.10
(AF:1E:0F:0A)
A. VMACs have to be manually configured
B. AF:1E:0F:0A:FF:FF
C. 02:0C:DB:1E:0F:0A
D. 02:0C:AF:1E:0F:0A
600-510 dumps Answer: C
12. What must be done before a Health-Check Policy will take effect?
A. The Health-Check Policy must be bound to the VIP
B. The Health-Check Policy intervals and reset must be define
C. The Health-Check Policy must be attached to an application port on a real server
D. The Health-Check Policy must be configured to use 3-way handshaking
Answer: C
13. A Matching List can contain:
A. Log
B. URL
C. Down simple D.
Status codes E.
Up Compound
600-510 pdf Answer: ACE
14. When health checking is enabled, a server response time consists of the combination of its response
to client requests and its response to Layer 4 or Layer 7 health checks from the ServerIron.
A. True B.
False
Answer: B
15. When using a scripted health check, the default health check is disabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
16. A scripted health check can only contain searches for:

A. ASCII content
B. Status codes
C. Status codes and ASCII content
D. Status codes, ASCII content and keepalives
Answer: C
17. Port profiles are used to define:
A. Port types
B. Status of ports
C. Well known ports
D. HTTP health checks
600-510 vce Answer: A
18. The Foundry ServerIron can perform Layer 7 health checks on the following TCP applications (select
all that applies)?
A. FTP (port 21)
B. POP3 (port 110)
C. LDAP (port 389)
D. SNMP
Answer: ABC
19. Health checks to port 443 can be:
A. Secure
B. Simple
C. Simple and Secure
D. Simple, Secure and Boolean
600-510 exam Answer: AB
20. A Port Profile is a set of attributes that defines a TCP/UDP port. Which of the following are valid Port
Profile Attributes?
A. l4-healthck
B. Keepalive interval and retries
C. TCP or UDP age
D. Keepalive state
Answer: BCD
21.Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads – one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups – one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns – one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it’s the most common of the four languages she’s targeting.
600-510 dumps Answer: C
22.You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)
Answer: C
23.In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
600-510 pdf Answer: D
24.Holly is the webmaster for her company’s website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

  • 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements 20% Cisco 600-510 Dumps
    1.1 Gather requirements
    1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements
    1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities
    1.2.a Apply different API models
    1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
    1.2.b [i] Controller-based
    1.2.b [ii] Device-centric API (distributed)
    1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)
    1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies
    1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications
    1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work
    1.5 Document application/networking touch points
    1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] A Brief Study Guide On The Best Cisco 200-155 Dumps DCICT Questions Answers Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 71
What term is assigned to the barriers that women and minorities may face when trying to advance to senior levels of an organization?
A. Societal barrier
B. Internal structure barrier
C. Governmental barrier
D. Glass ceiling
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 72
Your organization has employed a temporary worker for a position in your company. During employment the individual has been called to military duty. Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 are you obligated to reinstate the individual upon his return from duty?
A. No, because temporary employees do not have reinstatement rights.
B. No, because once an employee leaves, you are not obligated to reinstate them.
C. Yes, if they have been working as a temporary employee for more than 90 days.
D. Yes, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 requires it.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 73
Mark is a contractor for the CleanSweep Chimney Company. When the CleanSweep Chimney Company has work that they can’t manage they’ll send Mark to the customer site to quote on the work based on their standardized fees and complete the work on their behalf. The company will pay Mark for his time. Mark, however, often tells the home owners what the CleanSweep Chimney Company will charge, but he can personally do the job for less than the CleanSweep Chimney Company. What is this an example of?
A. Bait and switch
B. Breach of duty of loyalty
C. Breach of duty of diligence
D. Breach of duty of obedience
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 74
What is the most effective method to use when an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group?
A. An employee survey
B. A skip-level interview
C. An employee focus group
D. A brown-bag lunch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A skip-level interview provides an opportunity for a manager’s manager to obtain insight into the goals and satisfaction of employees in the work group. An employee survey (A) is best used to gather information about various issues that can be collated and summarized. A focus group (B) can be used to involve employees in the decision-making process. A brown-bag lunch (D) is an effective way for senior managers to meet with small groups of employees to answer questions about the company goals and mission and to obtain feedback about operations. See Chapter 7 for more information.
QUESTION 75
If a dress-code policy prohibits the use of ethnic clothing, but an employee requests an accommodation based on their religious preference, how should the employer respond?
A. Modify the dress code unless doing so would create an undue hardship.
B. Refuse the accommodation based on business necessity.
C. Allow the employee to dress in ethnic clothing with sufficient advance notice.
D. Only allow the clothing on casual dress days, when other employees are also allowed to dress outside of policy guidelines.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.A dress-code policy is generally an accepted employer practice, provided it applies to all employees or employees in certain job categories. There are exceptions, however, based on ethnicity or religious practices. As with any other accommodation, an employer should actively seek a solution that does not result in undue hardship. See
QUESTION 76
Your organization is looking for methods to improve communication between the management and the employees within the company. Which one of the following methods is best described as a small but representative sampling of employees – led in a conversation by a neutral moderator about an identified topic?
A. Pilot group
B. Focus group

C. Workshop
D. Brainstorming session
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A focus group is often used to find an employee-driven solution to a problem. Focus groups typically, but not always, include sampling of employees from across the organization. Focus groups should be led by neutral moderators, rather than members of the management. What are focus groups? Focus groups are directed conversations for gathering ideas, opinions about a product, service, problem, or opportunity.
References:
QUESTION 77
What is the difference between organizational culture and organizational climate?
A. There is no difference; the terms may be used interchangeably.
B. Organizational culture discusses the learning of the organization. Organizational climate discusses how well the learning happens.
C. Organizational culture defines the values of the company. Organizational climate defines the implementation of the values.
D. Organization climate is the sense of hostility. Organization culture is the sense of hospitality.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 78
All of the following reasons for termination of an employee are examples of wrongful termination except for which one?
A. Violation of company policy
B. Being a member of a protected class
C. Whistleblower
D. Filing a worker’s compensation claim
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 79
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
B. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
C. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a lawsuit
  against the organization.
D. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral third party rather than through a lawsuit.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:

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Exam Code: NSE5
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Q&As: 239

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QUESTION NO: 24
The third category of guidance ___________ includes a variety of materials that are developed and/or endorsed by The IIA, This category includes research studies, books, seminars, conferences, and other products and services related to the professional practice of internal auditing that do not meet the criteria for inclusion in mandatory guidance or Practice Advisories:
A. Products & services security Advisories
B. Practice Advisories
C. Security Advisories
D. Development and Practice Aids
NSE5 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which category of Professional Practices Framework can help to implement the guidance offered in the Code of Ethics, Standards, and Practice Advisories and also provide internal audit practitioners with the views of various experts on techniques and processes related to the professional practice of internal auditing?
A. Mandatory Guidance
B. Development and practice aids
C. Practice Advisories
D. Mandatory Guidance, Practice Advisories
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
The Professional Practices Framework consists of three categories of guidance which included all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Mandatory Guidance
B. Development and practice aids
C. Practice Advisories
D. Security Advisories
NSE5 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
_________ is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations. It helps an organization accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of ________, _________, and governance processes.
A. Internal auditing, risk management, control
B. Internal auditing, risk management, planning
C. Internal auditing, content management, control
D. External auditing, risk management, control
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
Which services involve the internal auditor’s objective assessment of evidence to provide an  independent opinion or conclusions regarding a process, system, or other subject matter?
A. Accounting services
B. Auditing services
C. Assurance services
D. Insurance services
NSE5 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
All of the following are the components of The Professional Practices Framework which was approved by The IIA’s Board of Directors in June 1999 EXCEPT:
A. Definition of Internal Auditing and Standards
B. Mandatory Guidance
C. Code of Ethics (See Section I.D) and Practice Advisories
D. Development and Practice Aids
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
Which services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client and also the nature and scope of which services are subject to agreement with the engagement client?
A. Auditing services
B. Consulting services
C. Assurance services
D. Accounting services
NSE5 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31

The Standards consist of Attribute Standards, Performance Standards, and Implementation Standards. The __________ address the characteristics of organizations and parties performing internal audit activities. The _________ describe the nature of internal audit activities and provide quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated. While the Attribute and Performance Standards apply to all internal audit services, the ________ apply to
specific types of engagements.
A. Implementation Standards, Attribute Standards, Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards, Implementation Standards, Performance Standards
C. Attribute Standards, Performance Standards, Implementation Standards
D. Performance Standards, Implementation Standards, Attribute Standards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
There is ________ of Attribute and Performance Standards; however, there are _______of Implementation Standards: a set for each of the major types of internal audit activity. The __________ have been established for assurance (A) and consulting (C) activities:
A. One set, multiple sets, Attribution Standards
B. One set, multiple sets, Implementation Standards
C. One set, multiple sets, Performance Standards
D. One set, multiple sets, Multiple Standards
NSE5 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Assurance services involve the internal auditor’s objective assessment of evidence to provide an independent opinion or conclusions regarding a process, system, or other subject matter. All of the following are the parties generally involved in assurance services EXCEPT:
A. The team leader
B. The person or group making the assessment — the internal auditor
C. The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.
D. The person or group using the assessment — the user.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
Consulting services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client. The nature and scope of the consulting engagement are subject to agreement with the engagement client. All of the following are the parties generally involved in consulting services EXCEPT:
A. The person or group using the assessment — the user.
B. the person or group offering the advice — the internal auditor
C. The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.
D. the person or group seeking and receiving the advice — the engagement client
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Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
The development and issuance of the Standards is an ongoing process. Which board engages in extensive consultation and discussion prior to the issuance of the Standards?
A. Advisory board
B. Quasi-Judicial Boards
C. The Internal Auditing Standards Board
D. The external auditing boards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Although some Practice Advisories may be applicable to all internal auditors, others may be developed to meet the needs of a _______, a __________, or _________, including guidance on topics such as environmental issues, control self assessment, information technology, government auditing, and guidance issued by other standard setting bodies and adopted by ______________.
A. Specific audit specialty, Specific geographic area, Specific industry, committees of The IIA
B. Specific industry, Specific geographic area, committees of The IIA, Specific audit specialty
C. Specific industry, Specific audit specialty, committees of The IIA, Specific geographic area,
D. Specific industry, Specific audit specialty, Specific geographic area, committees of The IIA.
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Answer: D

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