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Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments

  • Install, upgrade, and migrate servers and workloads
  • Install and configure Nano Server
  • Create, manage, and maintain images for deployment

Implement Storage Solutions

  • Implement server storage
  • Implement data deduplication

Implement Hyper-V

  • Install and configure Hyper-V
  • Configure virtual machine (VM) settings
  • Configure Hyper-V storage
  • Configure Hyper-V networking

Implement Windows Containers

  • Deploy Windows containers
  • Manage Windows containers

Implement High Availability

  • Implement high availability and disaster recovery options in Hyper-V
  • Implement failover clustering
  • Implement Storage Spaces Direct
  • Manage failover clustering
  • Manage VM movement in clustered nodes

Implement Domain Name System (DNS)

  • Install and configure DNS servers
  • Implement and Maintain IP Address Management (IPAM)

Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions

  • Implement virtual private network (VPN) and DirectAccess solutions

Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure

  • Implement high performance network solutions
  • Determine scenarios and requirements for implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN)

Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

  • Install and configure domain controllers

Implement identity federation and access solutions

  • Install and configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Implement Web Application Proxy (WAP)

Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network List Manager Policies are security settings that you can use to configure different aspects of how networks are listed and displayed on one computer or on many computers. Network List Manager Policies are not related to DNSSEC.

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the registration.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B. From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C. From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D. From IPv4, create a new filter.
E. From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F. From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G. From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H. From Scope1, create a reservation.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will
attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The Docker daemon runs on Server1.
You need to ensure that members of a security group named Docker Administrators can administer Docker. What should you do?
A. Run theSet-Service cmdlet.
B. Modify the Security settings of Dockerd.exe.
C. Edit the Daemon.json file.
D. Modify the Security settings of Docker.exe.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon. On VM1, you have a container network that uses transparent mode. You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP. What should you do?
A. On VM1, run docker network connect.
B. On Server1, run docker network connect.
C. On VM1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter 璏acAddressSpoofing On.
D. On Server1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter ?MacAddressSpoofing On.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If the container host is virtualized, and you wish to use DHCP for IP assignment, you must enable MACAddressSpoofing.
PS C:\> Get-VMNetworkAdapter -VMName ContainerHostVM | Set-VMNetworkAdapter – MacAddressSpoofing On
The command needs to be run on the Hyper-V host.

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 and VM1 run Windows Server 2016. The settings for VM1 are configured as shown in the exhibit below.
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You need to ensure that you can use the Copy-VMFile cmdlet on Server1 to copy files from VM1. Solution: You need to enable the Data Exchange integration service for VM1. Does this meet the goal?
A. YES
B. NO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
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You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients. Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export- DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
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You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You add a computer to subnet1. The computer has an IP address of 10.10.0.129 Web1 receives a request from the new computer and sends a response. What should you do?
A. 10.10.0.129
B. 10.10.0.224
C. 131.107.0.223
D. 172.16.128.222
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You plan to deploy several shielded virtual machines on Server1. You deploy a Host Guardian on a new server. You need to ensure that Server1 can host shielded virtual machines.
What should you do first?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
70-743 exam Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You discover that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with Server1 over the network. You need to ensure that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with each other only. The solution must prevent VM1 and VM2 from communicating with Server1.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Enable-VMSwitchExtention
B. Set-NetNeighbor
C. Set-VMSwitch
D. Remove-VMSwitchTeamMember
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The virtual switch needs to be configured as an “Private” switch.

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
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You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace. Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT). Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology. Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.

  1. Microsoft Exams 70-740, 70-741, and 70-742
  2. Time allotted for exam: 120 minutes (per exam)
  3. Number of questions: 40-60* (per exam)
  4. Question types: Active screen; Build list; Case study; Drag and drop; Hot area; Multiple choice/Best answer; Multiple choice/Single answer; Multiple choice/Multiple answer; Short answer
  5. Exam registration: Microsoft Learning or Pearson Vue
  6. Skills Measured: Each exam registration page on the Microsoft website provides a list of Skills Measured (which is a free resource) to guide your study and preparation.

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QUESTION 37
In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited
B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting
C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows supports two types of ACLs: discretionary access control lists (DACLs) and system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditing is enabled. In addition to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and DACL are all statically held as attributes of each object. Windows also offers the functionality to inherit permissions, which allows the child objects existing within a parent object to automatically inherit the ACLs of the parent object. ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identifiers (SIDs). These are automatically generated by a Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though a user may identify his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representation of the true SID, which is used by the underlying operating system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account’s SID rather than the account’s username or group name while granting access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer GUI but can also be configured with CLI commands or other third- party tools.
QUESTION 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?
A. Near zero RPO
B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitation
D. Faster response time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Synchronous Replication
In synchronous remote replication, writes must be committed to the source and remote replica (or target), prior to acknowledging “write complete” to the host. Additional writes on the source cannot occur until each preceding write has been completed and acknowledged. This ensures that data is identical on the source and replica at all times. Further, writes are transmitted to the remote site exactly in the order in which they are received at the source. Therefore, write ordering is maintained. If a source-site failure occurs, synchronous remote replication provides zero or near-zero recovery-point objective (RPO).
QUESTION 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Intra-array Storage Tiering

The process of storage tiering within a storage array is called intra-array storage tiering. It enables the efficient use of SSD, FC, and SATA drives within an array and provides performance and cost optimization. The goal is to keep the SSDs busy by storing the most frequently accessed data on them, while moving out the less frequently accessed data to the SATA drives. Data movements executed between tiers can be performed at the LUN level or at the sub-LUN level. The performance can be further improved by implementing tiered cache. Traditionally, storage tiering is operated at the LUN level that moves an entire LUN from one tier of storage to another. This movement includes both active and inactive data in that LUN. This method does not give effective cost and performance benefits. Today, storage tiering can be implemented at the sub-LUN level. In sub-LUN level tiering, a LUN is broken down into smaller segments and tiered at that level. Movement of data with much finer granularity, for example 8 MB, greatly enhances the value proposition of automated storage tiering. Tiering at the sub-LUN level effectively moves active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
QUESTION 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
A. Persistent Port Disable
B. Port Binding
C. Port Lockdown
D. Persistent Switch Disable
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Securing FC Switch Ports
Apart from zoning and LUN masking, additional security mechanisms, such as port binding, port lockdown, port lockout, and persistent port disable, can be implemented on switch ports. Port binding: Limits the devices that can attach to a particular switch port and allows only the corresponding switch port to connect to a node for fabric access. Port binding mitigates but does not eliminate WWPN spoofing. Port lockdown and port lockout: Restrict a switch port’s type of initialization. Typical variants of port lockout ensure that the switch port cannot function as an E-Port and cannot be used to create an ISL, such as a rogue switch. Some variants ensure that the port role is restricted to only F- Port, E-Port, or a combination of these. Persistent port disable: Prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot.
QUESTION 42
What does a block map contain in a file system snapshot?
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot
B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the first time
C. Blocks that have changed since the creation of the snapshot
D. Blocks that have been modified in either the source or the target
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

File system (FS) snapshot is a pointer-based replica that requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS. It uses the Copy on First Write (CoFW) principle to create snapshots. When a snapshot is created, a bitmap and blockmap are created in the metadata of the Snap FS. The bitmap is used to keep track of blocks that are changed on the production FS after the snap creation. The blockmap is used to indicate the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS . Immediately after the creation of the FS Snapshot, all reads from the snapshot are actually served by reading the production FS. In a CoFW mechanism, if a write I/O is issued to the production FS for the first time after the creation of a snapshot, the I/O is held and the original data of production FS corresponding to that location is moved to the Snap FS. Then, the write is allowed to the production FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Subsequent writes to the same location will not initiate the CoFW activity. To read from the Snap FS, the bitmap is consulted. If the bit is 0, then the read is directed to the production FS. If the bit is 1, then the block address is obtained from the blockmap and the data is read from that address on the snap FS. Read requests from the production FS work as normal.
QUESTION 43
What describes a full mesh topology?
A. All switches are directly connected to each other
B. Consists of core and edge switch tiers
C. Requires four switches
D. Requires two ISL hops for host to storage traffic
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Mesh Topology

A mesh topology may be one of the two types: full mesh or partial mesh. In a full mesh, every switch is connected to every other switch in the topology . A full mesh topology may be appropriate when the number of switches involved is small. A typical deployment would involve up to four switches or directors, with each of them servicing highly localized host-tostorage traffic. In a full mesh topology, a maximum of one ISL or hop is required for host-tostorage traffic. However, with the increase in the number of switches, the number of switch ports used for ISL also increases. This reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity. In a partial mesh topology, several hops or ISLs may be required for the traffic to reach its destination. Partial mesh offers more scalability than full mesh topology. However, without proper placement of host and storage devices, traffic management in a partial mesh fabric might be complicated and ISLs could become overloaded due to excessive traffic aggregation.
QUESTION 44
What is a characteristic of pointer-based virtual replication?
A. Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session
B. Replica device is at least as large as the source device
C. Replica is available only after detachment from the source
D. Source does not need to be healthy for the restore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pointer-based Virtual Replication
In pointer-based virtual replication, at the time of the replication session activation, the target contains pointers to the location of the data on the source. The target does not contain data at any time. Therefore, the target is known as a virtual replica. Similar to pointer-based full-volume replication, the target is immediately accessible after the replication session activation. This replication method uses CoFW technology and typically recommended when the changes to the source are less than 30%.
QUESTION 45
When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does the backup client run?
A. Proxy server
B. Hypervisor
C. Virtual machine
D. Backup device
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Image-based Backup
Image-based backup operates at the hypervisor level and essentially takes a snapshot of the VM. It creates a copy of the guest OS and all the data associated with it (snapshot of VM disk files), including the VM state and application configurations. The backup is saved as a single file called an “image” and this image is mounted on the proxy server (acts as a backup client). The backup software then backs up these image files normally. This effectively offloads the backup processing from the hypervisor and transfers the load on the proxy server, thereby reducing the impact to VMs running on the hypervisor. Image-based backup enables quick restoration of a VM.
QUESTION 46
Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a single storage platform?
A. Unified
B. Scale-out
C. Gateway
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Unified NAS
The unified NAS consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based data access within a unified storage platform and provides a unified management interface for managing both the environments. Unified NAS performs file serving and storing of file data, along with providing access to block- level data. It supports both CIFS and NFS protocols for file access and iSCSI and FC protocols for block level access. Due to consolidation of NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platform, unified NAS reduces an organization’s infrastructure and management costs. A unified NAS contains one or more NAS heads and storage in a single system. NAS heads are connected

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CONSEQUENTIAL OR INCIDENTAL DAMAGES, THE ABOVE LIMITATION MAY NOT APPLY TO
YOU.

4.INDEMNIFICATION
You agree to indemnify and hold RSA, The Security Division of EMC harmless against any loss,
liability, damage, cost or expense (including reasonable legal fees) arising out of:
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Your use of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and/or the RSA Certified Security

Professional designation(s) in a manner which is in any way inconsistent with the terms of the RSA
Certified Security Professional Agreement;
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By reason of Your performance or non-performance as a RSA Certified Security Professional; or
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RSA Security’s termination of the RSA Certified Security Professional 70-741 exam Agreement.
In the event RSA, The Security Division of EMC seeks indemnification from You under this Section,
RSA will immediately notify You in writing of any claim or proceeding brought against it for which it
seeks indemnification. In no event may You enter into any third-party agreements that would, in any
manner whatsoever, affect the rights of, or bind, RSA, The Security Division of EMC in any manner,
without the prior written consent of RSA, The Security Division of EMC.

5. REPRESENTATIONS
All certified security professionals who are certified under the RSA Certified Security Professional
Program recognize that such certification is a privilege that must be both earned and maintained. In
support of this, You represent that all business You conduct in Your capacity as an RSA Certified
Security Professional, and all services You provide concerning RSA’s products, shall be performed in
a manner that:
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Does not, in any way, harm RSA’s reputation;
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Avoids deceptive, misleading, or unethical practices; width
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Avoids making any representations, warranties, or guarantees to customers on behalf of RSA 70-741 dumps, The
Security Division of EMC for RSA’s products or otherwise;
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Complies with all applicable U.S. export regulations and other applicable governmental laws and
regulations; and
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Complies with copyright and other intellectual property and proprietary rights protections for RSA’s
products.
6. NON-DISCLOSURE AGREEMENT
You expressly undertake to retain, in confidence, all information and know-how transmitted to You by
RSA, The Security Division of EMC that RSA has identified as being proprietary and/or confidential or
that, by the nature of the circumstances surrounding its disclosure, ought in good faith to be treated as
proprietary and/or confidential, and You will make no use of such information and know-how except
under the terms and during the existence of the Non-Disclosure Agreement.
You expressly acknowledge that the RSA Certified Security Professional certification test questions
and materials are subject to these confidentiality and non-disclosure obligations, and may not be
disclosed to or discussed with others, or posted 70-741 pdf or published in any forum or through any medium.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, You shall have no obligation to maintain the confidentiality of
information that:
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Has become generally available to the public through no wrongful act on Your part;
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Has been independently developed; or
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Is known to be free of restrictions.
Further, You may disclose confidential information as required by governmental or judicial order,
provided You give RSA prompt written notice prior to such disclosure, and comply with any protective
order (or equivalent) imposed on such disclosure.
Your obligation under this Section shall survive the expiration or termination of the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement and continue after any termination of said Agreement.
7. TERMINATION
Termination By Either Party:
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Either party may terminate the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement at any time, with or
without cause.
Immediate Termination By RSA:
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Without prejudice to any rights RSA, The Security Division of EMC may have under the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement or in law, equity, or otherwise, and in addition to its rights outlined in
the previous paragraph, RSA, The Security Division of EMC 70-741 vce may terminate the RSA Certified Security
Professional Agreement immediately, including termination of any certifications and RSA Certified
Security Professional designations to which the Agreement relates, and termination of Your use of the
corresponding RSA Certified Security Professional Logo, upon the occurrence of any one of the
following events (the “Defaults”):
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You fail to comply with the applicable continuing certification requirements for such certification; width
You otherwise fail to comply with any of the terms of the RSA Certified Security Professional
Agreement, including, without limitation, the terms governing the use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional designations and Logo;
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You engage in misappropriation or unauthorized disclosure of any trade secret or confidential
information of RSA (including, but not limited to, any RSA Certified Security Professional certification
test materials or other RSA materials with respect to which You are under non-disclosure 70-741 exam obligation),
or pirate any RSA’s product, or otherwise infringe any other intellectual property right of RSA, or
engage in any other activities prohibited by law; or
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A government agency or court finds that services You provided concerning RSA’s products, to which
Your certification relates, are defective in any way.
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In the event any Default occurs, RSA, The Security Division of EMC will provide You with written
notice of termination of the 70-741 dumps RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement.
Obligations Upon Termination
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From and after termination of the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement, You shall
immediately cease all use of any RSA Certified Security Professional designation and Logo to which
the Agreement relates.

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QUESTION 8
Quality control circles are now used all over the world. The circles typically consist of a group of five to ten employees who meet regularly. The primary goal of
these circles is to:
A. Improve the quality of leadership in the organization.
B. Tap the creative problem-solving potential of every employee.
C. Improve communications between employees and managers by providing a formal communication channel
D. Allow for the emergence of team leaders who can be targeted for further leadership development.
Correct Answer: B
70-742 exam Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality control circles are used to obtain voluntary input from employees to promote problem solving. Potential benefits include lower costs, better employer
employee relations, and greater employee commitment.
QUESTION 9
A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and
reliability of branch store financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a high- performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches).
This process requires, among other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance measurement is the amount of
bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.
QUESTION 10
The management and employees of a large household goods moving company believe that it if became nationally known as adhering to total quality management
and continuous improvement, one result would be an increase in the company’s profits and market share. What should the company focus onto achieve quality
more economically?
A. Appraisal costs.
B. Prevention costs.

C. Internal failure costs.
D. External failure costs.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Prevention is ordinarily less costly than the combined costs of appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
QUESTION 11
The cost of scrap, rework, and tooling changes in a product quality cost system is categorized as a (n):
A. Training cost.
B. External failure cost.
C. Internal failure cost.
D. Prevention cost.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal failure costs are incurred when detection of defective products occurs before shipment. Examples of internal failure costs are scrap, rework, tooling
changes, and downtime.
QUESTION 12
The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective output during and after the production process. Internal failure
costs are associated with defective output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output discovered after it has reached
the customer.
QUESTION 13
Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.
QUESTION 14
Listed below are costs of quality that a manufacturing company has incurred throughout its operations.
The U.S. dollar amount of the costs of quality classified as prevention costs for the manufacturing firm would be:
A. US$643,000
B. US$701,000
C. US$736,000
D. US$768,000
70-742 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Examples are the costs of employee training, review of equipment design, preventive maintenance, and
evaluation of suppliers. Accordingly, the prevention costs equal US $701,000 ($275,000 design reviews + $180,000 process engineering + $90,000 scheduled
maintenance + $156,000 training).
QUESTION 15
The costs of quality that are incurred in detecting units of product that do not conform to product specifications are referred to as:
A. Prevention costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Rework costs.
D. Failure costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Appraisal activities include inspection and testing. Appraisal costs (such as test equipment maintenance and destructive testing) are incurred to detect products
not conforming to specifications.
QUESTION 16
Listed below are selected line items from the cost-of-quality report for Company B for last month Category:
What is Company B’s total prevention and appraisal cost for last month?
A. US$786
B. US$1,154
C. US$1,940
D. US$2,665
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (C) is correct. Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects from occurring. An example is equipment maintenance. Appraisal costs are incurred to
detect defective output during and after the production process. An example is product testing. Thus, total prevention and appraisal cost for the month equals US
$1,940 (US$1,154 + US $786).

QUESTION 17
All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
QUESTION 18
In Year 2, a manufacturing company instituted a total quality management (TQM) program producing the following report:
On the basis of this report, which one of the following statements is most likely true?
A. An increase in prevention and appraisal costs resulted in a higher quality product and therefore resulted in a decrease in failure costs.
B. An increase in inspection costs was solely responsible for the decrease in quality costs.
C. Quality costs, such as scrap and rework, decreased by 48%.
D. Quality costs, such as returns and repairs under warranty, decreased by 40%.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Prevention and appraisal costs increased substantially, but internal and external failure costs decreased. Thus, the soundest conclusion is
that the increase in prevention and appraisal costs resulted in a higher-quality product.
QUESTION 19
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining a given level of quality. One example of a quality cost index, which uses a
direct labor base, is computed as:

Based upon these cost data, the quality cost index:
A. Decreased four points from May to June.
B. Was unchanged from May to June.
C. Increased 10 points from May to June.
D. Decreased 10 points from May to June.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The index for May was 40 [(US $4,000 + $6,000 + $12,000 + $14,000) + $90,000], and the index for June was 36 [(US $5,000 + $5,000 + $15,000 + $11.000) +
$100,000].
Answer:
QUESTION 20
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining or improving the level of quality. Such indices are computed by dividing the
total cost of quality over a given period by some measure of activity during that period (for example, sales dollars). The following cost data are available for a

company for the month of March. The company’s quality cost index is calculated using total cost of quality divided by sales dollars.
The quality cost index for March is:
A. 7.5
B. 6.5
C. 22.0
D. 5.9
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total cost of quality equals the sum of prevention costs (quality planning), appraisal costs (inspection and testing), internal failure costs (scrap and rework),
and external failure costs (customer complaints and returns), or US $30,000 ($2,800 + $6,400 + $16,800 + $4,000). Thus, the quality cost index for March is 7.5
[(US $30,000 – US $400,000) x 100].
QUESTION 21
Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the differences between these organizations have certain implications for
quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes maybe reworked or replaced to a customer’s satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of customers.

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