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Pass4itsure Free Micrsoft 70-734 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 37
In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited
B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting
C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic
70-734 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows supports two types of ACLs: discretionary access control lists (DACLs) and system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditing is enabled. In addition to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and DACL are all statically held as attributes of each object. Windows also offers the functionality to inherit permissions, which allows the child objects existing within a parent object to automatically inherit the ACLs of the parent object. ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identifiers (SIDs). These are automatically generated by a Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though a user may identify his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representation of the true SID, which is used by the underlying operating system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account’s SID rather than the account’s username or group name while granting access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer GUI but can also be configured with CLI commands or other third- party tools.
QUESTION 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?
A. Near zero RPO
B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitation
D. Faster response time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Synchronous Replication
In synchronous remote replication, writes must be committed to the source and remote replica (or target), prior to acknowledging “write complete” to the host. Additional writes on the source cannot occur until each preceding write has been completed and acknowledged. This ensures that data is identical on the source and replica at all times. Further, writes are transmitted to the remote site exactly in the order in which they are received at the source. Therefore, write ordering is maintained. If a source-site failure occurs, synchronous remote replication provides zero or near-zero recovery-point objective (RPO).
QUESTION 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs
70-734 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Intra-array Storage Tiering

The process of storage tiering within a storage array is called intra-array storage tiering. It enables the efficient use of SSD, FC, and SATA drives within an array and provides performance and cost optimization. The goal is to keep the SSDs busy by storing the most frequently accessed data on them, while moving out the less frequently accessed data to the SATA drives. Data movements executed between tiers can be performed at the LUN level or at the sub-LUN level. The performance can be further improved by implementing tiered cache. Traditionally, storage tiering is operated at the LUN level that moves an entire LUN from one tier of storage to another. This movement includes both active and inactive data in that LUN. This method does not give effective cost and performance benefits. Today, storage tiering can be implemented at the sub-LUN level. In sub-LUN level tiering, a LUN is broken down into smaller segments and tiered at that level. Movement of data with much finer granularity, for example 8 MB, greatly enhances the value proposition of automated storage tiering. Tiering at the sub-LUN level effectively moves active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
QUESTION 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
A. Persistent Port Disable
B. Port Binding
C. Port Lockdown
D. Persistent Switch Disable
70-734 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Securing FC Switch Ports
Apart from zoning and LUN masking, additional security mechanisms, such as port binding, port lockdown, port lockout, and persistent port disable, can be implemented on switch ports. Port binding: Limits the devices that can attach to a particular switch port and allows only the corresponding switch port to connect to a node for fabric access. Port binding mitigates but does not eliminate WWPN spoofing. Port lockdown and port lockout: Restrict a switch port’s type of initialization. Typical variants of port lockout ensure that the switch port cannot function as an E-Port and cannot be used to create an ISL, such as a rogue switch. Some variants ensure that the port role is restricted to only F- Port, E-Port, or a combination of these. Persistent port disable: Prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot.
QUESTION 42
What does a block map contain in a file system snapshot?
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot
B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the first time
C. Blocks that have changed since the creation of the snapshot
D. Blocks that have been modified in either the source or the target
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

File system (FS) snapshot is a pointer-based replica that requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS. It uses the Copy on First Write (CoFW) principle to create snapshots. When a snapshot is created, a bitmap and blockmap are created in the metadata of the Snap FS. The bitmap is used to keep track of blocks that are changed on the production FS after the snap creation. The blockmap is used to indicate the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS . Immediately after the creation of the FS Snapshot, all reads from the snapshot are actually served by reading the production FS. In a CoFW mechanism, if a write I/O is issued to the production FS for the first time after the creation of a snapshot, the I/O is held and the original data of production FS corresponding to that location is moved to the Snap FS. Then, the write is allowed to the production FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Subsequent writes to the same location will not initiate the CoFW activity. To read from the Snap FS, the bitmap is consulted. If the bit is 0, then the read is directed to the production FS. If the bit is 1, then the block address is obtained from the blockmap and the data is read from that address on the snap FS. Read requests from the production FS work as normal.
QUESTION 43
What describes a full mesh topology?
A. All switches are directly connected to each other
B. Consists of core and edge switch tiers
C. Requires four switches
D. Requires two ISL hops for host to storage traffic
70-734 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Mesh Topology

A mesh topology may be one of the two types: full mesh or partial mesh. In a full mesh, every switch is connected to every other switch in the topology . A full mesh topology may be appropriate when the number of switches involved is small. A typical deployment would involve up to four switches or directors, with each of them servicing highly localized host-tostorage traffic. In a full mesh topology, a maximum of one ISL or hop is required for host-tostorage traffic. However, with the increase in the number of switches, the number of switch ports used for ISL also increases. This reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity. In a partial mesh topology, several hops or ISLs may be required for the traffic to reach its destination. Partial mesh offers more scalability than full mesh topology. However, without proper placement of host and storage devices, traffic management in a partial mesh fabric might be complicated and ISLs could become overloaded due to excessive traffic aggregation.
QUESTION 44
What is a characteristic of pointer-based virtual replication?
A. Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session
B. Replica device is at least as large as the source device
C. Replica is available only after detachment from the source
D. Source does not need to be healthy for the restore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pointer-based Virtual Replication
In pointer-based virtual replication, at the time of the replication session activation, the target contains pointers to the location of the data on the source. The target does not contain data at any time. Therefore, the target is known as a virtual replica. Similar to pointer-based full-volume replication, the target is immediately accessible after the replication session activation. This replication method uses CoFW technology and typically recommended when the changes to the source are less than 30%.
QUESTION 45
When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does the backup client run?
A. Proxy server
B. Hypervisor
C. Virtual machine
D. Backup device
70-734 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Image-based Backup
Image-based backup operates at the hypervisor level and essentially takes a snapshot of the VM. It creates a copy of the guest OS and all the data associated with it (snapshot of VM disk files), including the VM state and application configurations. The backup is saved as a single file called an “image” and this image is mounted on the proxy server (acts as a backup client). The backup software then backs up these image files normally. This effectively offloads the backup processing from the hypervisor and transfers the load on the proxy server, thereby reducing the impact to VMs running on the hypervisor. Image-based backup enables quick restoration of a VM.
QUESTION 46
Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a single storage platform?
A. Unified
B. Scale-out
C. Gateway
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Unified NAS
The unified NAS consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based data access within a unified storage platform and provides a unified management interface for managing both the environments. Unified NAS performs file serving and storing of file data, along with providing access to block- level data. It supports both CIFS and NFS protocols for file access and iSCSI and FC protocols for block level access. Due to consolidation of NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platform, unified NAS reduces an organization’s infrastructure and management costs. A unified NAS contains one or more NAS heads and storage in a single system. NAS heads are connected

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 810-502 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 29
In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functions of the FC-1 layer?
A. Encoding and decoding
B. Routing and flow control
C. Interface mapping and flow control
D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FC-1 Layer: It defines how data is encoded prior to transmission and decoded upon receipt. At the transmitter node, an 8-bit character is encoded into a 10-bit transmission character. This character is then transmitted to the receiver node. At the receiver node, the 10-bit character is passed to the FC-1 layer,  which decodes the 10-bit character into the original 8-bit character. FC links with speed 10 Gbps and above use 64-bit to 66-bit encoding algorithm. This layer also defines the transmission words such as FC frame delimiters, which identify the start and end of a frame and primitive signals that indicate events at a transmitting port. In addition to these, the FC-1 layer performs link initialization and error recovery.
QUESTION 30
What is a security implementation in NAS environments?
A. Kerberos
B. Port binding
C. S_ID Lockdown
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security Implementation in NAS
NAS is open to multiple exploits, including viruses, worms, unauthorized access, snooping, and data tampering. Various security mechanisms are implemented in NAS to secure data and the storage networking infrastructure. Permissions and ACLs form the first level of protection to NAS resources by restricting accessibility and sharing. These permissions are deployed over and above the default behaviors and attributes associated with files and folders. In addition, various other authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as Kerberos and directory services, are implemented to verify the identity of network users and define their privileges. Similarly, firewalls protect the storage infrastructure from unauthorized access and malicious attacks.
QUESTION 31
In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning?
A. Restricts RSCN traffic
B. Isolates fabric services
C. Enables online volume expansion
D. Provides non-disruptive data migration
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Zoning
Zoning is an FC switch function that enables node ports within the fabric to be logically segmented into groups and communicate with each other within the group. Whenever a change takes place in the name server database, the fabric controller sends a Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to all the nodes impacted by the change. If zoning is not configured, the fabric controller sends an RSCN to all the nodes in the fabric. Involving the nodes that are not impacted by the change results in increased fabric-management traffic. For a large fabric, the amount of FC traffic generated due to this process can be significant and might impact the host-to-storage data traffic. Zoning helps to limit the number of RSCNs in a fabric. In the presence of zoning, a fabric sends the RSCN to only those nodes in a zone where the change has occurred.
QUESTION 32
What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?
A. 1

B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centers to access a single copy of data?
A. VPLEX
B. VMAX
C. VNX
D. Vblock
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMC VPLEX
EMC VPLEX is the next-generation solution for block-level virtualization and data mobility both within and across datacenters. The VPLEX appliance resides between the servers and heterogeneous storage devices. It forms a pool of distributed block storage resources and enables creating virtual storage volumes from the pool. These virtual volumes are then allocated to the servers. The virtual-to-physical storage mapping remains hidden to the servers. VPLEX provides nondisruptive data mobility among physical storage devices to balance the application workload and to enable both local and remote data access. The mapping of virtual volumes to physical volumes can be changed dynamically by the administrator. VPLEX uses a unique clustering architecture and distributed cache coherency that enable multiple hosts located across two locations to access a single copy of data. VPLEX also provides the capability to mirror
  data of a virtual volume both within and across locations. This enables hosts at different data centers to access cache-coherent copies of the same virtual volume. To avoid application downtime due to outage at a data center, the workload can be moved quickly to another data center. Applications continue accessing the same virtual volume and remain uninterrupted by the data mobility. The VPLEX family consists of three products: VPLEX Local, VPLEX Metro, and VPLEX Geo. EMC VPLEX Local delivers local federation, which provides simplified management and nondisruptive data mobility across heterogeneous arrays within a data center. EMC VPLEX Metro delivers distributed federation, which provides data access and mobility between two VPEX clusters within synchronous distances that support round-trip latency up to 5 ms. EMC VPLEX Geo delivers data access and mobility between two VPLEX clusters within asynchronous distances (that support round-trip latency up to 50 ms).
QUESTION 34
Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to a secondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system?
A. MirrorView
B. SnapView
C. RepliStor
D. SRDF
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMC MirrorView
The MirrorView software enables EMC VNX storage arraybased remote replication. It replicates the contents of a primary volume to a secondary volume that resides on a different VNX storage system. The MirrorView family consists of MirrorView/Synchronous (MirrorView/S) and MirrorView/Asynchronous (MirrorView/A) solutions. MirrorView/S is a synchronous product that mirrors data between local and remote storage systems. MirrorView/A is an asynchronous product that offers extended distance replication based on periodic incremental update model. It periodically updates the remote copy of the data with all the changes that occurred on the primary copy since the last update.
QUESTION 35
A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings. Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
A. Incremental
B. Cumulative
C. Full
D. Differential
810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backup Granularity

Backup granularity depends on business needs and the required RTO/RPO. Based on the granularity, backups can be categorized as full, incremental, and cumulative (or differential). Most organizations use a combination of these three backup types to meet their backup and recovery requirements. Figure on the slide depicts the different backup granularity levels. Full backup is a backup of the complete data on the production volumes. A full backup copy is created by copying the data in the production volumes to a backup storage device. It provides a faster recovery but requires more storage space and also takes more time to back up. Incremental backup copies the data that has changed since the last full or incremental backup, whichever has occurred more recently. This is much faster than a full backup (because the volume of data backed up is restricted to the changed data only) but takes longer to restore . Cumulative backup copies the data that has changed since the last full backup. This method takes longer than an incremental backup but is faster to restore. Another way to implement full backup is synthetic (or constructed) backup. This method is used when the production volume resources cannot be exclusively reserved for a backup process for extended periods to perform a full backup. It is usually created from the most recent full backup and all the incremental backups performed after that full backup. This backup is called synthetic because the backup is not created directly from production data. A synthetic full backup enables a full backup copy to be created offline without disrupting the I/O operation on the production volume. This also frees up network resources from the backup process, making them available for other production uses.
QUESTION 36
What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAS Implementation – Scale-out NAS
The scale-out NAS implementation pools multiple nodes together in a cluster. A node may consist of either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operation as a single entity.
  A scale-out NAS provides the capability to scale its resources by simply adding nodes to a clustered NAS architecture. The cluster works as a single NAS device and is managed centrally. Nodes can be added to the cluster, when more performance or more capacity is needed, without causing any downtime. Scale-out NAS provides the flexibility to use many nodes of moderate performance and availability characteristics to produce a total system that has better aggregate performance and availability. It also provides ease of use,
low cost, and theoretically unlimited scalability. Scale-out NAS creates a single file system that runs on all nodes in the cluster. All information is shared among nodes, so the entire file system is accessible by clients connecting to any node in the cluster. Scale-out NAS stripes data across all nodes in a cluster along with mirror or parity protection. As data is sent from clients to the cluster, the data is divided and allocated to different nodes in parallel. When a client sends a request to read a file, the scale-out NAS retrieves the appropriate blocks from multiple nodes, recombines the blocks into a file, and presents the file to the client. As nodes are added, the file system grows dynamically and data is evenly distributed to every node. Each node added to the cluster increases the aggregate storage, memory, CPU, and network capacity. Hence, cluster performance also increases.

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2.Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
400-151 exam 
Correct:D E
3.What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
4.Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)
A.IP B.TCP
C.FTP
D.NFS
E.UDP
F.ARP
400-151 dumps 
Correct:B E
5.Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask 255.255.224.0. The network will reserve subnets of all “0’s” and all “1’s”. What is the maximum number of available subnets?
Answer:
A.6
Correct:A
6.Select the link state routing protocols. (Choose two.)
A.RIP B.LAT
C.SNA
D.NLSP
E.RTMP
F.OSPF
400-151 pdf 
Correct:D F
7.What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?
A.PPP
B.ATM
C.X.25
D.SLIP E.ISDN
F.Frame Relay
Correct:B
8.Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)
A.NICs
B.routers
C.switches
D.gateways
E.repeaters
F.active hubs
400-151 vce 
Correct:A C
9.What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.THREE
Correct:A
10.What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
400-151 exam 
Correct:A
11.What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)
A.static routing B.count
to-infinity C.resource
intensive D.slow
convergence time E.lack
of industry support
Correct:B D
12.A network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. It reserves host addresses containing all “1’s”. How many host addresses are available for each subnet?
A.255
B.512
C.1023
D.2047
400-151 dumps  
Correct:D
13.What protocol provides access to the X.500 and is specifically targeted at simple management
and browser applications? Answer:
A.LDAP,(LIGHTWEIGHTDIRECTORYACCESSPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
14.How many characters may be in a single domain name label?
A.16
B.63

C.120
D.255
400-151 pdf 
Correct:B
15.Which IPX network addresses are reserved for special purposes? (Choose three.)
A.00000000
B.11111111
C.FFFFFFFF
D.FFFFFFFE
E.AAAAAAAA
F.AAAA0000
Correct:A C D
16.How many bits are in an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.32
400-151 vce 
Correct:A
17.What IPX routing protocol offers load balancing capabilities without reducing the physical size of the internetwork? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
18.What information is exchanged in an initial “hello” packet between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
A.hello interval
B.router priority number
C.full link state database
D.IP address and subnet mask
E.summary of the link state database
F.summary of the link state advertising database
400-151 exam 
Correct:A B D
19.A network administrator has been assigned a Class B network address of 150.225.0.0. The administrator then subnetted the network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. If the administrator is reserving node addresses of all “0’s” and all “1’s,” what is the range of available node addresses for the subnet 150.225.32.0?
A.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.44.254
B.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.47.254
C.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.48.254
D.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.50.254
E.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.52.254
F.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.44.254
G.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.46.254
H.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.48.254
I.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.52.254
J.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.54.254
Correct:A
20.How many IP addresses must be combined to create the IP supernet address 215.100.16.0/21?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
G.8
H.9
I.10
400-151 dumps 
Correct:G
21. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of .
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
Answer: B
22. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
400-151 pdf 
Answer: CD
23. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: AB
24. POSIX .
A. is the same as UNIX
B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard

400-151 vce Answer: D
25. A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
Answer: BC
26. Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn’t available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor’s external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor’s queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.

400-151 exam Answer: AB
27. Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
A. suspend / resume API’s
B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
Answer: CD
28. Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
B. Allow a task’s use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time

D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks’ priorities
400-151 dumps 
Answer: BC
29. The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new priority? (Choose two.)
A. The priority of the highest priority task
B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked
Answer: CD
30. What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces overhead
B. Increases overhead
C. May starve lower priority tasks
D. Avoids the need for priority queues
400-151 pdf 
Answer: BC
31. A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a .
A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application
B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
C. representative benchmark models a real application’s execution characteristics
D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the application
Answer: C
32. Network protocol models are described as layers that .
A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers (e.g., application)
B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers (e.g., hardware)
C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses

400-151 vce Answer: A
33. The primary requirement for an RTOS is to .
A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)
Answer: C
34. A strictly conforming POSIX application .
A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options
B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API’s for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance
400-151 exam 
Answer: C
35. Which statement accurately describes where a “mark” exists in the MDA model hierarchy?
A. as part of the PSM
B. as part of the PIM
C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM
Answer: C
36. In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM . (Choose TWO.)
A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language
400-151 dumps 
Answer: AC
37. What does the term “Platform independence” mean?
A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from some class of platforms.
C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application may be deployed.
Answer: B
38. What is an “implementation model”?
A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
D. A file that is executable on some computer system.
400-151 pdf 
Answer: C
39. What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose TWO.)
A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.
Answer: BD
40. A metamodel is a .
A. set of UML templates for drawing system models
B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems
400-151 vce 
Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits:
Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
400-101 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are
inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%. For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected). For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-
25%-25%. This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
Question No : 12. Following the installation of the Symposium Express 3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?
A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.
B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.
C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
400-101 vce Answer: C
Question No : 13. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client (04.00.037.00 to 04.02.011.04 inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?
A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.
B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.
C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package “CRTEmplates.msi”.
Answer: D
Question No : 14. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: “could not create database”. Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?
A. Key the database in by hand.

B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.
C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.
D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Question No : 15. A field engineer at a customer’s site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?
A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.
B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.
C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions and re-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.
D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.
Answer:A
Question No : 16. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?
A. Onto a remote directory of a network computer
B. Only onto an application server other than the original server
C. Only onto the same application server where the backup was created
D. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 17. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?
A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.

B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.
C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.
D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.
Answer: D
Question No : 18. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?
A. config.sys
B. lmhost table
C. command.com
D. autoexec.bat
400-101 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 19. The field engineer is preparing to use the “import configuration data” wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the “import configuration data” wizard?
A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.
C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
Answer:A
Question No : 20. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?
A. TCP/IP on the PBX switch
B. TCP/IP on the TAPI Server
C. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RAS

D. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server
400-101 vce Answer: C

Question No : 21. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?
A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.
B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.
D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.
Answer: C

 

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 8 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
  agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
300-170 exam Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 9 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A
QUESTION 10 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
300-170 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an organization’s integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant B.
Involvement in product design C.
Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
300-170 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier’s strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
production, and engineering.
Answer: C
QUESTION 14 If a supplier’s level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer’s company at the supplier’s plant

B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer’s company’s quality control department
D. Label “Quality of Material is Critical” on the purchase order
300-170 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 15 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76 centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3 standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20 centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
300-170 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following situations must be corrected FIRST to ensure successful information security governance within an organization?
A. The information security department has difficulty filling vacancies.
B. The chief information officer (CIO) approves security policy changes.
C. The information security oversight committee only meets quarterly.
D. The data center manager has final signoff on all security projects.
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A steering committee should be in place to approve all security projects. The fact that the data center manager has final signoff for all security projects indicates that a steering committee is not being used and that information security is relegated to a subordinate place in the organization. This would indicate a failure of information security governance. It is not inappropriate for an oversight or steering committee to meet quarterly. Similarly, it may be desirable to have the chief information officer (CIO) approve the security policy due to the size of the organization and frequency of updates. Difficulty in filling vacancies is not uncommon due to the shortage of good, qualified information security professionals.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following requirements would have the lowest level of priority in information security?
A. Technical
B. Regulatory
C. Privacy
D. Business
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security priorities may, at times, override technical specifications, which then must be rewritten to conform to minimum security standards. Regulatory and privacy requirements are government mandated and, therefore, not subject to override. The needs of the business should always take precedence in deciding information security priorities.
QUESTION 20
When an organization hires a new information security manager, which of the following goals should this individual pursue FIRST?
A. Develop a security architecture
B. Establish good communication with steering committee members
C. Assemble an experienced staff
D. Benchmark peer organizations
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New information security managers should seek to build rapport and establish lines of communication with senior management to enlist their support. Benchmarking peer organizations is beneficial to better understand industry best practices, but it is secondary to obtaining senior management support. Similarly, developing a security architecture and assembling an experienced staff are objectives that can be obtained later.
QUESTION 21
It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security architecture should always be properly aligned with business goals and objectives. Alignment with IT plans or industry and security best practices is secondary by comparison.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines

D. Standards
300-170 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.
QUESTION 23
Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks.
B. evaluations in trade publications.
C. use of new and emerging technologies.
D. benefits in comparison to their costs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most fundamental evaluation criterion for the appropriate selection of any security technology is its ability to reduce or eliminate business risks. Investments in security technologies should be based on their overall value in relation to their cost; the value can be demonstrated in terms of risk mitigation. This should take precedence over whether they use new or exotic technologies or how they are evaluated in trade publications.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes?
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Policies
D. Guidelines
300-170 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes.
QUESTION 25
The MOST important factor in planning for the long-term retention of electronically stored business records is to take into account potential changes in:
A. storage capacity and shelf life.
B. regulatory and legal requirements.
C. business strategy and direction.
D. application systems and media.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Long-term retention of business records may be severely impacted by changes in application systems and media. For example, data stored in nonstandard formats that can only be read and interpreted by previously decommissioned applications may be difficult, if not impossible, to recover. Business strategy and direction do not generally apply, nor do legal and regulatory requirements. Storage capacity and shelf life are important but secondary issues.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is characteristic of decentralized information security management across a geographically dispersed organization?
A. More uniformity in quality of service
B. Better adherence to policies
C. Better alignment to business unit needs
D. More savings in total operating costs
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Decentralization of information security management generally results in better alignment to business unit needs. It is generally more expensive to administer due to the lack of economies of scale. Uniformity in quality of service tends to vary from unit to unit.
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position to sponsor the design and implementation of a new security infrastructure in a large global enterprise?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief operating officer (COO)
C. Chief privacy officer (CPO)
D. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The chief operating officer (COO) is most knowledgeable of business operations and objectives. The chief privacy officer (CPO) and the chief legal counsel (CLC) may not have the knowledge of the day- to-day business operations to ensure proper guidance, although they have the same influence within the organization as the COO. Although the chief security officer (CSO) is knowledgeable of what is needed, the sponsor for this task should be someone with far-reaching influence across the organization.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following would be the MOST important goal of an information security governance program?
A. Review of internal control mechanisms
B. Effective involvement in business decision making
C. Total elimination of risk factors
D. Ensuring trust in data
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The development of trust in the integrity of information among stakeholders should be the primary goal of
  information security governance. Review of internal control mechanisms relates more to auditing, while the total elimination of risk factors is not practical or possible. Proactive involvement in business decision making implies that security needs dictate business needs when, in fact, just the opposite is true. Involvement in decision making is important only to ensure business data integrity so that data can be trusted.
QUESTION 29
Relationships among security technologies are BEST defined through which of the following?
A. Security metrics
B. Network topology
C. Security architecture
D. Process improvement models
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security architecture explains the use and relationships of security mechanisms. Security metrics measure improvement within the security practice but do not explain the use and relationships of security technologies. Process improvement models and network topology diagrams also do not describe the use and relationships of these technologies.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 25
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input
to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have
studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants
you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and
impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve

300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project
execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives,
which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management
Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which
of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 32
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his
organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to
help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees
that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is
most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.

B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 34
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
QUESTION 35
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on
several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many
risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high
risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there
any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to
Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are
small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk
events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree
Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine
overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response
that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to
cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
That fact that minor changes in customer demand can become exaggerated as that demand is
communicated up that supply chain is referred to as:
A. embellished effect
B. amplification effect
C. bullwhip effect
D. inflation effect
300-360 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
According to the supply management, one of the most useful ways to develop
Is to begin with an inventory report listing all items in descending order of
dollar spent.
A. Top-down classification
B. Slope classification
C. Gradient classification
D. ABC classification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
A physical stock checking system in which the inventory is divided into groups that are
physically counted at predetermined intervals is called:
A. Continuous inventory
B. Cycle counting
C. Reconciliation
D. None of the above
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The inventory reporting measures format is typically presented in which of the following way?
A. weeks of supply
B. average aggregate inventory
C. inventory turnover
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is NOT the component used to calculate the inventory holding costs?
A. Released rates
B. Invested funds
C. Shrinkage
D. Obsolescence
300-360 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
With what an organization’s inventory values are kept continuously in line with its actual
inventory on hand?
A. Services inventory control system
B. Perpetual inventory control system
C. Periodic inventory control system
D. Temporary inventory control system
Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
A term used to describe a ‘one piece flow’ business strategy that allows an organization to
establish a continuous sequencing of product, within a flow process is known as:
A. Flow manufacturing
B. Inventory scheduling
C. Just-in-time scheduling
D. Online scheduling
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
A progressive approach to control inventory is called:

A. Materials inventory
B. Delays in production approach
C. Supplier-managed inventory
D. Depleted control approach
Answer: C
QUESTION: 47
The term most often used to refer to the role of logistics in product returns, source reduction,
recycling, materials substitution, reuse of materials, waster disposal, and refurbishing, repair an
remanufacturing is known as:
A. Multichannel logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Rearrange Materials logistics
D. Switch State art logistics
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
An intermediary who brings the buyer and the seller together is the:
A. Dealer
B. their-party specialist
C. public surplus
D. Broker
Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
Applying the value of existing equipment against the purchase of new is referred to as:
A. Bidding

B. Trade-in
C. Action
D. Equipment sales
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
A lean manufacturing technique in which the transformation of materials is traced from
beginning to end to determine if there is waste in the process is called:
A. Value stream mapping
B. State map technique
C. Fair market value mapping
D. Customized stream mapping
Answer: A
QUESTION: 51
New product ideas fall into following categories except:
A. Breakthrough ideas
B. Incremental ideas
C. Derivative ideas
D. Production ideas
300-360 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
A tool used to develop the technical specifications necessary to meet customer requirements is
called:
A. Quality function deployment
B. Quality forecast
C. Quality Matrix
D. House of Quality

Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
happens when one or more existing competitors realize an opportunity to improve
their position or when they are responding to the pressure from other competitors.
A. Substitute bargaining
B. Antagonism
C. Rivalry
D. Business Conflict
300-360 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 54
A standard of point of reference used in measuring or judging an organization’s performance
according to selected criteria is called:
A. Performance assessment
B. Benchmarking
C. Process revelation
D. None of the above
300-360 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55
Which of the following essentially translate an organization’s business plan into an operation
plan?
A. Requirement plan
B. Staffing plan
C. Capital investment plan
D. Services resources

Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The amount of reserve capacity that a firm maintains to handle sudden increases in demand or
temporary losses of production capacity is called:
A. Capacity cushion
B. Capacity capability
C. Capacity staffing
D. Capacity board
Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
The process which begins by understanding the product such as its value, its physical
characteristics such as length, height, width, and weight and its fragility is called:
A. Packaging optimization
B. Product optimization
C. Process Throughput
D. Flood flow gain
300-360 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 58
A practice that involves purchasing professional in the new product or service development
process from its inception is called:
A. Service level professionalism
B. Statement of work flow
C. Early purchasing Improvement
D. Initializing consent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
What is used to obtain general information about products, services or suppliers and is
information request, not binding on either the supplier or the purchaser?
A. Procurement document
B. Solicitation document
C. Target market
D. Qualified product description
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
What involves taking out an investment that will specifically reduce or cancel out the risk in
another investment?
A. Operational strategy
B. Situational factor
C. Hedging strategy
D. Optimization strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
Two back-to-back quarters of negative gross domestic product growth is referred to as:
A. Recession
B. Hunch
C. Nose-dive
D. Obsolescence
300-360 pdf 
Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 6
Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online. Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Your client wants to use Google AdWords’ ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video ad for your customer?
A. You’ll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You’ll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
400-351 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her. How can the SEO firm now manage Beth’s account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth’s account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth’s account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth’s account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
400-351 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you’ve elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It’s calculated using a variety of factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user’s search query.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
400-351 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You’re serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client, is new to Web-based business sales and he’s concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his ad for a short period of time. What’s the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best explanation of Google’s double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar businesses.
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network. How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network – once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she’s hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery. She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad – rather than advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
400-351 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Linda has a discount clothing store and she’d like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred’s ad to be displayed?
A. Car that’s been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
Your client wants to be ranked number one in Google search listings on the keyword golf. How can Google AdWords helps this goal?
A. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if the client enrolls in the Google Organic Search program and the GoogleAdWords program.
B. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword if their ad uses the same keywords on the client’s Website.
C. Participation in Google AdWords will not help the client’s organic search results.
D. Participation in Google AdWords will help the client’s quest to be ranked high on the particular keyword.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
What tool can you use with Google AdWords to determine how much time customers spend on your site after they click your ad?
A. Google Analytics
B. Google Pack
C. Google Translate
D. Google Trends for Websites
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Wendy has created a new Google AdWords account and she has selected her time zone as EST. Wendy later realizes that she should have selected the time zone as PST. How can Wendy change the time zone in her Google AdWords account?
A. Wendy can change the time zone as Administrative account in the Account Settings.
B. Wendy can’t change the time zone without calling the Google AdWords support center.
C. Shecannot. Once the time zone is set, it cannot be changed.
D. Wendy can change the time zone as an Administrative account through Options/Settings.
Answer: C

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The Cloud Remains the Main Focus of Oracle’s Earnings

Oracle Cloud provides a complete SaaS application suite for ERP,HCM and CX, plus the best database platform for Americas, Europe and Asia Data Center (PaaS) and infrastructure as services (IaaS). While this is a quiet time for the company, the technology giant Oracle is one of the exceptions, reporting earnings for the second quarter of fiscal year 2018 after Thursday’s market shutdown on December 14. Oracle’s cloud division has been a constant focus for analysts and CEOs, and Safra Catz has attributed the company’s recent revenue and revenue growth to the sector’s performance. Oracle reported in the first quarter of fiscal year 2018 that the total revenue of cloud computing rose 51% per cent to $1.47 billion, excluding the effects of foreign exchange.

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Oracle Sets-Oracle Identity Security Operations Center (SOC) service portfolio and Oracle Management cloud-first unveiled at Oracle Global Conference to help businesses anticipate, reduce, detect and resolve security threats, and help repair applications and infrastructure performance questions Oracle sets use artificial intelligence to analyze a unified data set composed of security and operational telemetry, and to provide automated fixes designed to enable customers to quickly adjust their security and operational status as the risk changes. This application of machine learning may help prevent attacks, shortening the detection window from months to minutes

In its cloud department, Oracle reports the fastest growing portion of the software as a service. Revenue from the sector grew 62% to $1.07 billion year-on-year. Another two parts of its cloud division, “Platform services and infrastructure services”, rose 28% to $400 million. For the second quarter of fiscal year 2018, management said they expected the cloud’s revenues to grow within 39% to 43%.

Based on our advanced AI and automation technologies, the Oracle Identity SOC Portfolio now provides cloud local identity governance and adaptive security designed to protect customer cloud and digital services. In addition to strengthening internal security monitoring, Oracle’s comprehensive cross stack threat detection capability provides a wide range of threat detection, reduces noise from false positives, and is highly accurate in detecting and repairing the enterprise’s most important it asset threats.

oracle news

Another area where analysts may be looking for more information is some of the company’s new products and how these new products develop. At the beginning of October, Oracle launched an autonomous database cloud using machine learning to “eliminate and adjust, repair, update and maintain database-related human costs.” It also introduced the block-chain cloud service. The Oracle Identity Soc portfolio now includes new automated identity governance for hybrid clouds, expanded consumer identity management, machine learning-driven configuration management, and enhanced AI capabilities.

Oracle has announced the first cloud-local identity governance service for a mixed cloud environment, which will be fully integrated into Oracle’s SaaS applications, the Oracle Identity SOC portfolio (including Oracle Identity cloud Services and Oracle CASB Cloud Services), and Oracle Management cloud. Through the Oracle CASB Cloud Service’s smart machine learning and cloud application risk feeds, this combination helps to provide a better user experience for identity governance and traditional process and evaluation automation, all with a secure and operational telemetry environment from local and hybrid systems.

The Oracle CASB Cloud service also now includes risk-based Cloud access control to help organizations reduce the risk of cloud applications. New controls can help manage configuration changes or application access based on rich contexts, including device type, geographic location, and dynamic risk scoring. Together, these factors are designed to help prevent user access based on stolen credentials and to reduce the risk of abuse of cloud application administrator privileges.

oracle news

Second quarter earnings and revenue forecasts
Oracle is expected to yield $0.68 per share after a correction, up from $0.61 a year earlier, to $9.55 billion in revenue and 5.3% Year-on-year, according to a third-party consensus analyst. In the past four quarters, ORCL’s earnings forecasts have all exceeded expectations and three are revenue forecasts.

Excluding the effects of foreign exchange, management’s guidelines for the quarter are 2% to 4% of total revenue, with non-GAAP earning between $0.64 and $0.68 per share. Including the impact of foreign exchange, chief executive Safra Catz said that if interest rates remained at the level of the guidelines issued by mid-September, non-GAAP earnings per share could have a positive impact of up to 2 cents, up from $0.66 to $0.70.

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but
is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the
login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description

D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network
administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be
done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip
address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While
debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces
Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

300-115 dumps

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration
from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the
existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to
complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?

300-115 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is
configured with EtherChannel mode active.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Test Questions Helps You Preparing The Best Windows Server Certification Video Training

Do you want to quickly get Microsoft certification 70-410 dumps?”Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012” also known as 70-410 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Most accurate Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam test questions helps you preparing the best Windows Server Certification video training. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam questions answers are updated (503 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 60
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has two physical disks installed. The C: drive hosts the boot partition, while the D: drive is not being used. Both disks are online. You have received instructions to create a virtual machine on L2P-SR07. Subsequent to creating the virtual machine, you
have to connect the D: drive to the virtual machine. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connecting a physical disk to a virtual machine?
A. The physical disk should not be online.
B. The physical disk should be uninstalled and re-installed.
C. The physical disk should be configured as a striped disk.
D. The physical disk should be configured as a mirrored disk.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File Server server role installed. On Server1, you create a share named Documents. You need to ensure that users can recover files that they accidently delete from Documents. What should you do?
A. Enable shadow copies by using Computer Management.
B. Modify the Startup type of the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) by using the Services console.
C. Create a recovery partition by using Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
D. Create a storage pool that contains a two-way mirrored volume by using Server Manager.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to obtain an IPv4 address by using DHCP. You need to configure the IPv4 settings of the network connection on Server1 as follows:
– IP address: 10.1.1.1
– Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
– Default gateway: 10.1.1.254
What should you run?
A. netsh.exe
B. netcfg.exe
C. msconfig.exe
D. ipconfig.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three member servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
70-410 dumps

All client computers run Windows 8. All client computers receive updates from Server2. On Servers, you add a shared printer named Printer1. Printer1 uses a Type 4 driver that is not included in the Windows 8 installation media. You need to ensure that when users connect to the printer for the first time, the printer driver is installed automatically on their client computer. What should you do?
A. From the Windows Deployment Services console on Server1, add the driver package for Printer1.
B. From the Update Services console on Server2, import and approve updates.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server3, run the Add-PrinterDriver cmdlet.
D. From the Print Management console on Server3, add additional drivers for Printer1.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 computer accounts in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A user account named User1 is in an OU named OU2. You are configuring a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right to all of the computer
accounts in OU1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link GPO1 to OU1.
B. Link GPO1 to OU2.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.

D. From User Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
E. From Computer Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes what happens when facility backup fast reroute is enabled for a LSP? Choose three answers.
A. Each PLR will signal a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop node or link.
B. When a failure occurs, the PLR will push an additional label onto the label stack and start forwarding traffic onto its bypass tunnel.
C. The ingress router will include a RRO object in the path message to indicate the routers that should be PLRs and MPs along the protected path.
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish bypass tunnels.
E. When the bypass tunnel is in use, the MP will include the RRO object in its PathErr message, with the
local protection in use flag set to notify the ingress router that it is using the bypass tunnel.
70-410 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 67
True or False? MPLS may use an existing data link layer header field to identify a label, instead of using a specific MPLS header
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Which one of the following statements regarding the detour object transported in the detour path message is true?
A. The PLR sends it downstream with the RRO.
B. The PLR sends it downstream with the ERO.
C. It associates all detours with the source PLR.
D. The MP sends it upstream with the RESV message.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B

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