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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but
is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the
login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description

D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network
administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be
done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip
address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While
debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces
Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

300-115 dumps

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration
from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the
existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

300-115 dumps

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to
complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?

300-115 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is
configured with EtherChannel mode active.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Test Questions Helps You Preparing The Best Windows Server Certification Video Training

Do you want to quickly get Microsoft certification 70-410 dumps?”Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012” also known as 70-410 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Most accurate Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam test questions helps you preparing the best Windows Server Certification video training. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam questions answers are updated (503 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 60
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has two physical disks installed. The C: drive hosts the boot partition, while the D: drive is not being used. Both disks are online. You have received instructions to create a virtual machine on L2P-SR07. Subsequent to creating the virtual machine, you
have to connect the D: drive to the virtual machine. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connecting a physical disk to a virtual machine?
A. The physical disk should not be online.
B. The physical disk should be uninstalled and re-installed.
C. The physical disk should be configured as a striped disk.
D. The physical disk should be configured as a mirrored disk.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File Server server role installed. On Server1, you create a share named Documents. You need to ensure that users can recover files that they accidently delete from Documents. What should you do?
A. Enable shadow copies by using Computer Management.
B. Modify the Startup type of the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) by using the Services console.
C. Create a recovery partition by using Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
D. Create a storage pool that contains a two-way mirrored volume by using Server Manager.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to obtain an IPv4 address by using DHCP. You need to configure the IPv4 settings of the network connection on Server1 as follows:
– IP address: 10.1.1.1
– Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
– Default gateway: 10.1.1.254
What should you run?
A. netsh.exe
B. netcfg.exe
C. msconfig.exe
D. ipconfig.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three member servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
70-410 dumps

All client computers run Windows 8. All client computers receive updates from Server2. On Servers, you add a shared printer named Printer1. Printer1 uses a Type 4 driver that is not included in the Windows 8 installation media. You need to ensure that when users connect to the printer for the first time, the printer driver is installed automatically on their client computer. What should you do?
A. From the Windows Deployment Services console on Server1, add the driver package for Printer1.
B. From the Update Services console on Server2, import and approve updates.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server3, run the Add-PrinterDriver cmdlet.
D. From the Print Management console on Server3, add additional drivers for Printer1.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 computer accounts in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A user account named User1 is in an OU named OU2. You are configuring a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right to all of the computer
accounts in OU1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Link GPO1 to OU1.
B. Link GPO1 to OU2.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.

D. From User Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
E. From Computer Configuration in GPO1, modify the security settings.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes what happens when facility backup fast reroute is enabled for a LSP? Choose three answers.
A. Each PLR will signal a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop node or link.
B. When a failure occurs, the PLR will push an additional label onto the label stack and start forwarding traffic onto its bypass tunnel.
C. The ingress router will include a RRO object in the path message to indicate the routers that should be PLRs and MPs along the protected path.
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish bypass tunnels.
E. When the bypass tunnel is in use, the MP will include the RRO object in its PathErr message, with the
local protection in use flag set to notify the ingress router that it is using the bypass tunnel.
70-410 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 67
True or False? MPLS may use an existing data link layer header field to identify a label, instead of using a specific MPLS header
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Which one of the following statements regarding the detour object transported in the detour path message is true?
A. The PLR sends it downstream with the RRO.
B. The PLR sends it downstream with the ERO.
C. It associates all detours with the source PLR.
D. The MP sends it upstream with the RESV message.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Most Important Cisco 600-510 Dumps Exam Youtube Study Guide Developing with Network Programmability

What is Cisco 600-510 dumps exam training materials?”Developing with Network Programmability” is the name of Cisco 600-510 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Most important Cisco 600-510 dumps exam youtube study guide Developing with Network Programmability. Pass4itsure Cisco 600-510 dumps exam questions answers are updated (112 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Q&As: 112

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 600-510 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

1. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 exam Answer: BCDEFG
2. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C
3. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
600-510 dumps Answer: EFG
4. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400
product families?
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
5. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all
request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be
saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http

C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
600-510 pdf Answer: D
6. A UDP application is considered down if the server returns:
A. No packet
B. A garbage packet
C. An UDP probe packet
D. An ICMP unreachable packet
Answer: D
7. An active health check is done:
A. At each user request
B. According to the configured time values
C. When the Reassign-Threshold is exceeded
D. When there is a status change from the server
600-510 vce Answer: B
8. An HTTP health check can return:
A. A keepalive
B. Status code
C. Content verification
D. A value to increment the Reassign-Threshold
Answer: BC
9. Which of the following Health Check types are performed at Layer 7?
A. Arp Request
B. TCP C.
HTTP D.
IMAP4
E. UDP F.
LDAP G.
MMS H.
RSTP
600-510 exam Answer: CDFG
10. How many simultaneous levels of health checks can be configured on the ServerIron to health check
the same real server
A. Layer 3, Layer4

B. Layer4, Layer7
C. Layer3, Layer4, Layer7, content match
D. Layer 4, Layer7, content match
Answer: B
11. What will be the corresponding Virtual MAC Address belonging to a configured VIP 175.30.15.10
(AF:1E:0F:0A)
A. VMACs have to be manually configured
B. AF:1E:0F:0A:FF:FF
C. 02:0C:DB:1E:0F:0A
D. 02:0C:AF:1E:0F:0A
600-510 dumps Answer: C
12. What must be done before a Health-Check Policy will take effect?
A. The Health-Check Policy must be bound to the VIP
B. The Health-Check Policy intervals and reset must be define
C. The Health-Check Policy must be attached to an application port on a real server
D. The Health-Check Policy must be configured to use 3-way handshaking
Answer: C
13. A Matching List can contain:
A. Log
B. URL
C. Down simple D.
Status codes E.
Up Compound
600-510 pdf Answer: ACE
14. When health checking is enabled, a server response time consists of the combination of its response
to client requests and its response to Layer 4 or Layer 7 health checks from the ServerIron.
A. True B.
False
Answer: B
15. When using a scripted health check, the default health check is disabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
16. A scripted health check can only contain searches for:

A. ASCII content
B. Status codes
C. Status codes and ASCII content
D. Status codes, ASCII content and keepalives
Answer: C
17. Port profiles are used to define:
A. Port types
B. Status of ports
C. Well known ports
D. HTTP health checks
600-510 vce Answer: A
18. The Foundry ServerIron can perform Layer 7 health checks on the following TCP applications (select
all that applies)?
A. FTP (port 21)
B. POP3 (port 110)
C. LDAP (port 389)
D. SNMP
Answer: ABC
19. Health checks to port 443 can be:
A. Secure
B. Simple
C. Simple and Secure
D. Simple, Secure and Boolean
600-510 exam Answer: AB
20. A Port Profile is a set of attributes that defines a TCP/UDP port. Which of the following are valid Port
Profile Attributes?
A. l4-healthck
B. Keepalive interval and retries
C. TCP or UDP age
D. Keepalive state
Answer: BCD
21.Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads – one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups – one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns – one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it’s the most common of the four languages she’s targeting.
600-510 dumps Answer: C
22.You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales – Advertising costs)
Answer: C
23.In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
600-510 pdf Answer: D
24.Holly is the webmaster for her company’s website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

  • 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements 20% Cisco 600-510 Dumps
    1.1 Gather requirements
    1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements
    1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities
    1.2.a Apply different API models
    1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
    1.2.b [i] Controller-based
    1.2.b [ii] Device-centric API (distributed)
    1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)
    1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies
    1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications
    1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work
    1.5 Document application/networking touch points
    1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] A Brief Study Guide On The Best Cisco 200-155 Dumps DCICT Questions Answers Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

Where can I get study material for new Cisco 200-155 dumps exam?”Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies” is the name of Cisco 200-155 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. A brief study guide on the best Cisco 200-155 dumps DCICT questions answers Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies. Pass4itsure Cisco 200-155 dumps exam questions answers are updated (85 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 71
What term is assigned to the barriers that women and minorities may face when trying to advance to senior levels of an organization?
A. Societal barrier
B. Internal structure barrier
C. Governmental barrier
D. Glass ceiling
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 72
Your organization has employed a temporary worker for a position in your company. During employment the individual has been called to military duty. Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 are you obligated to reinstate the individual upon his return from duty?
A. No, because temporary employees do not have reinstatement rights.
B. No, because once an employee leaves, you are not obligated to reinstate them.
C. Yes, if they have been working as a temporary employee for more than 90 days.
D. Yes, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 requires it.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 73
Mark is a contractor for the CleanSweep Chimney Company. When the CleanSweep Chimney Company has work that they can’t manage they’ll send Mark to the customer site to quote on the work based on their standardized fees and complete the work on their behalf. The company will pay Mark for his time. Mark, however, often tells the home owners what the CleanSweep Chimney Company will charge, but he can personally do the job for less than the CleanSweep Chimney Company. What is this an example of?
A. Bait and switch
B. Breach of duty of loyalty
C. Breach of duty of diligence
D. Breach of duty of obedience
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 74
What is the most effective method to use when an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group?
A. An employee survey
B. A skip-level interview
C. An employee focus group
D. A brown-bag lunch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A skip-level interview provides an opportunity for a manager’s manager to obtain insight into the goals and satisfaction of employees in the work group. An employee survey (A) is best used to gather information about various issues that can be collated and summarized. A focus group (B) can be used to involve employees in the decision-making process. A brown-bag lunch (D) is an effective way for senior managers to meet with small groups of employees to answer questions about the company goals and mission and to obtain feedback about operations. See Chapter 7 for more information.
QUESTION 75
If a dress-code policy prohibits the use of ethnic clothing, but an employee requests an accommodation based on their religious preference, how should the employer respond?
A. Modify the dress code unless doing so would create an undue hardship.
B. Refuse the accommodation based on business necessity.
C. Allow the employee to dress in ethnic clothing with sufficient advance notice.
D. Only allow the clothing on casual dress days, when other employees are also allowed to dress outside of policy guidelines.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.A dress-code policy is generally an accepted employer practice, provided it applies to all employees or employees in certain job categories. There are exceptions, however, based on ethnicity or religious practices. As with any other accommodation, an employer should actively seek a solution that does not result in undue hardship. See
QUESTION 76
Your organization is looking for methods to improve communication between the management and the employees within the company. Which one of the following methods is best described as a small but representative sampling of employees – led in a conversation by a neutral moderator about an identified topic?
A. Pilot group
B. Focus group

C. Workshop
D. Brainstorming session
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.A focus group is often used to find an employee-driven solution to a problem. Focus groups typically, but not always, include sampling of employees from across the organization. Focus groups should be led by neutral moderators, rather than members of the management. What are focus groups? Focus groups are directed conversations for gathering ideas, opinions about a product, service, problem, or opportunity.
References:
QUESTION 77
What is the difference between organizational culture and organizational climate?
A. There is no difference; the terms may be used interchangeably.
B. Organizational culture discusses the learning of the organization. Organizational climate discusses how well the learning happens.
C. Organizational culture defines the values of the company. Organizational climate defines the implementation of the values.
D. Organization climate is the sense of hostility. Organization culture is the sense of hospitality.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 78
All of the following reasons for termination of an employee are examples of wrongful termination except for which one?
A. Violation of company policy
B. Being a member of a protected class
C. Whistleblower
D. Filing a worker’s compensation claim
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 79
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
B. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
C. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a lawsuit
  against the organization.
D. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral third party rather than through a lawsuit.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:

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Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Q&As: 239

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QUESTION NO: 24
The third category of guidance ___________ includes a variety of materials that are developed and/or endorsed by The IIA, This category includes research studies, books, seminars, conferences, and other products and services related to the professional practice of internal auditing that do not meet the criteria for inclusion in mandatory guidance or Practice Advisories:
A. Products & services security Advisories
B. Practice Advisories
C. Security Advisories
D. Development and Practice Aids
NSE5 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which category of Professional Practices Framework can help to implement the guidance offered in the Code of Ethics, Standards, and Practice Advisories and also provide internal audit practitioners with the views of various experts on techniques and processes related to the professional practice of internal auditing?
A. Mandatory Guidance
B. Development and practice aids
C. Practice Advisories
D. Mandatory Guidance, Practice Advisories
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
The Professional Practices Framework consists of three categories of guidance which included all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Mandatory Guidance
B. Development and practice aids
C. Practice Advisories
D. Security Advisories
NSE5 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
_________ is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations. It helps an organization accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of ________, _________, and governance processes.
A. Internal auditing, risk management, control
B. Internal auditing, risk management, planning
C. Internal auditing, content management, control
D. External auditing, risk management, control
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
Which services involve the internal auditor’s objective assessment of evidence to provide an  independent opinion or conclusions regarding a process, system, or other subject matter?
A. Accounting services
B. Auditing services
C. Assurance services
D. Insurance services
NSE5 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
All of the following are the components of The Professional Practices Framework which was approved by The IIA’s Board of Directors in June 1999 EXCEPT:
A. Definition of Internal Auditing and Standards
B. Mandatory Guidance
C. Code of Ethics (See Section I.D) and Practice Advisories
D. Development and Practice Aids
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
Which services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client and also the nature and scope of which services are subject to agreement with the engagement client?
A. Auditing services
B. Consulting services
C. Assurance services
D. Accounting services
NSE5 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31

The Standards consist of Attribute Standards, Performance Standards, and Implementation Standards. The __________ address the characteristics of organizations and parties performing internal audit activities. The _________ describe the nature of internal audit activities and provide quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated. While the Attribute and Performance Standards apply to all internal audit services, the ________ apply to
specific types of engagements.
A. Implementation Standards, Attribute Standards, Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards, Implementation Standards, Performance Standards
C. Attribute Standards, Performance Standards, Implementation Standards
D. Performance Standards, Implementation Standards, Attribute Standards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
There is ________ of Attribute and Performance Standards; however, there are _______of Implementation Standards: a set for each of the major types of internal audit activity. The __________ have been established for assurance (A) and consulting (C) activities:
A. One set, multiple sets, Attribution Standards
B. One set, multiple sets, Implementation Standards
C. One set, multiple sets, Performance Standards
D. One set, multiple sets, Multiple Standards
NSE5 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Assurance services involve the internal auditor’s objective assessment of evidence to provide an independent opinion or conclusions regarding a process, system, or other subject matter. All of the following are the parties generally involved in assurance services EXCEPT:
A. The team leader
B. The person or group making the assessment — the internal auditor
C. The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.
D. The person or group using the assessment — the user.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
Consulting services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client. The nature and scope of the consulting engagement are subject to agreement with the engagement client. All of the following are the parties generally involved in consulting services EXCEPT:
A. The person or group using the assessment — the user.
B. the person or group offering the advice — the internal auditor
C. The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.
D. the person or group seeking and receiving the advice — the engagement client
NSE5 dumps 
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
The development and issuance of the Standards is an ongoing process. Which board engages in extensive consultation and discussion prior to the issuance of the Standards?
A. Advisory board
B. Quasi-Judicial Boards
C. The Internal Auditing Standards Board
D. The external auditing boards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Although some Practice Advisories may be applicable to all internal auditors, others may be developed to meet the needs of a _______, a __________, or _________, including guidance on topics such as environmental issues, control self assessment, information technology, government auditing, and guidance issued by other standard setting bodies and adopted by ______________.
A. Specific audit specialty, Specific geographic area, Specific industry, committees of The IIA
B. Specific industry, Specific geographic area, committees of The IIA, Specific audit specialty
C. Specific industry, Specific audit specialty, committees of The IIA, Specific geographic area,
D. Specific industry, Specific audit specialty, Specific geographic area, committees of The IIA.
NSE5 pdf 
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 52
Patrick visits his teenage daughter’s social media page and discovers several offensive posts about one of her classmates. After speaking with his daughter, Patrick learns that several other girls in her class are upset with the classmate and have been posting, texting and e-mailing others about the girl. What is the best way for Patrick to help his daughter understand cyberbullying?
A. He should advise his daughter to ignore the posts, texts and c-mails.
B. He should explain to his daughter that she is participating in the bullying by accepting others’ posts, texts and c-mails.
C. He should explain to his daughter that the Internet embraces freedom of speech, and anyone is allowed to write anything.
D. He should advise his daughter to delete all the posts, texts and c-mails she has received, as well as any new ones that appear.
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 53
When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. use the images without purchasing a license.
D. assume copyright of the images.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 54
Which type of application allows you to edit and validate your source code and preview your Web pages in multiple browsers?
A. GUI HTML editor
B. HTML text editor
C. Word processor
D. Compiler
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 55
Evonka is listening to music from an online music provider (such as Pandora or Jango). She builds a list of music preferences, including favorite songs. The music service then suggests additional songs she might enjoy. The music
provider is an example of a cloud-computing application that uses a technology for collaborative filtering, which helps define the list of songs available to listeners. Which term describes this technology?
A. Bit-torrent r
B. Crowdsourcing
C. Grid computing
D. Software as a Service
Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The App-A-Day company offers software applications for various topics. When a customer purchases a desired application from the App-A-Day online store, he is directed to a page where he can download the application directly. When the customer is redirected and begins downloading the application, which specific standard protocol is most likely transferring the application?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SMTP

210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
Which of the following is a disadvantage of implementing a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy in a company?
A. Increased cost for licensing mobile applications
B. Configuring the corporate e-mail server to work with mobile devices
C. Inability to control access to company data if the device is stolen or lost
D. Providing training for employees on how to use mobile devices with company applications
Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
When using cloud-based services to host company data, a company’s disaster recovery plan should include strategies for:
A. creating redundancy and ensuring there is an exclusive contract with the cloud service provider.
B. distributing data and software services across multiple cloud service providers.
C. creating redundancy and using multiple cloud service providers.
D. using a single well-established cloud service provider.
210-260 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
Marsha’s boss directed her to create a mobile version of the company’s Web site. To ensure her mobile site is optimized, Marsha eliminates banners and advertisements. What other recommendations should Marsha follow?
A. Use images instead of video on the Web site.
B. Use white space to give the site an uncluttered look.
C. Use Flash content to replace lengthy text descriptions.
D. Create several Web sites, each tailored to a specific mobile platform.

210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
Which set of standards developed by the W3C Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) project provides a universal set of standards promoting accessibility for all Web users, including those with disabilities?
A. Web Content Accessibility Guidelines
B. User Agent Accessibility Guidelines
C. W3C Authoring Tool Accessibility Guidelines
D. Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act
Answer: A
QUESTION: 61
You have just checked the balance in your bank account by logging into your bank’s Web site. Which protocol was most likely used for the transmission of your information?
A. IMAPS
B. HTTPS
C. POP3
D. FTPS
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 62
You can use the HTML <input>, <select> and <text area> tags to create form fields in a Web page by placing them between the <form> /form> container tags. Which attribute is used with the <input> element to designate the fields that will appear in the form?
A. The type attribute B.
The name attribute C.
The value attribute D.
The action attribute

Answer: A
QUESTION: 63
Which term describes the practice of actively collecting wireless networking data from companies and individuals?
A. War driving
B. Spear phishing
C. Dictionary attack
D. Social engineering
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 64
Your Web browser is currently open and displaying a popular sports site. You decide that you want to browse to the CIW site without closing the browser. What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?
A. By performing a search on your computer for the term “CIW”
B. By performing a search within the site currently displayed in your Web browser
C. By typing in the FTP address (ftp.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
D. By typing the CIW site’s URL (www.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
Answer: D
QUESTION: 65
What should be your first step when troubleshooting a network connection that uses a cable modem?
A. Ping the proxy server.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping local devices using their DNS names.
D. Ping local devices using their IP addresses.

210-260 vce Answer: D

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
300-135 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre
defined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Wisdom
C. Information
D. Knowledge
300-135 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. A method of structuring an organization
D. Responds to specific events
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
300-135 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
The term ‘Service Management’ is best used to describe?
A. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form
of services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Desk Manager
D. The Service Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Capacity Management
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
300-135 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Defining roles and responsibilities
D. Monitoring services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
D. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice”
300-135 exam Answer: D

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Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
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QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?
A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
1Z0-062 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user
connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?
A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this
service for creating a local naming service”
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the
tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?
A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym

E. creating a view
1Z0-062 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM).
It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?
A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR
user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero
value
1Z0-062 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is
displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAME ACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
———————————– ——————– ——————– ——————— —————-
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY 1 0 29690 467
6709
OTHES__GROUPS 0 0 5982366 4089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 0 2420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES 4 2 4594660 3004
55700
Which two statements are true?
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the
session will be queued.
1Z0-062 vce Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?
A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn
and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

Name Null? Type
——————————————– ————————————- —————————–
PROD_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
CUST_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
TIME_ID NOT NULL DATE
CHANNEL_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
QUANT I TY___S OL D NOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2)
AMOUNT SOLD NOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2)
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
1Z0-062 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a
single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?
A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded
B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You 1Z0-062 dumps issue the command:
LSNRCTL> RELOAD
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?
A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.
B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the
listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?
A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using
the abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown
using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by
using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the
abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN
IMMEDIATE.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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Question: 14
The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However,
the JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees.
What danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
70-740 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of how past discriminatory practices can perpetuate themselves in the
organization, by using the current pool of employees to bring new applicants. Past discriminatory
practices that created the current pool of employees can cause the current pool to refer similar
candidates to the company.
Answer option D is incorrect. While this choice is tempting the question doesn’t reveal what the
discriminatory practices were in the past. The discriminatory practices could have been race, sex,
religion, or a host of other discrimination.
Answer option A is incorrect. The question doesn’t reveal if the past practices were intentional or
not, and the current situation could and could not be unintentional. The best answer, however, is
that this scenario perpetuates past discrimination practices.
Answer option C is incorrect. An adverse impact is the overall effect of a disparate action. While this
answer is tempting, it’s not the best choice for the question.
Question: 15
You are a HR Professional for your organization and you’re preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you’ll use and encourage in the
series of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for
the graphic designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example
of what type of validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
70-740 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The selection criterion for the graphic designer to use the software program and create a brochure is
indicative of the type of work the graphic designer should be able to do in the job. This is an example
of content validity for the applicant.
Answer option C is incorrect. Criterion-related validity is an example where performance scores
achieved by current employees are based on the criterion used for the selection. For example,
current employees can perform better because they can design artwork in particular software
programs, so applicants must be able to use the particular software program to qualify for the
position.
Answer option A is incorrect. Construct-related validity measures certain psychological tests to
determine whether the applicant possesses the desired characteristics to operate successfully in the
position.
Answer option B is incorrect. Predictive-validity is a confirmation of characteristics the candidate is
tested for during the interview process, hold true in the actual performance of the candidate once
they’ve been hired.
Question: 16
The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against
employees on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law
affects organizations having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
70-740 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
This law addresses all organizations that have 15 or more employees.
Answer option A is incorrect. Organizations with fewer than 15 employees are exempted from this
law.
Answer option B is incorrect. The law requires organizations with 15 or more employees to conform
to the regulation.
Answer option D is incorrect. This law applies to all organizations with 15 or more employees, not
just the federal government.

Question: 17
The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering
$80,000 for the starting salary they’ll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this
scenario an example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
70-740 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
When an organization wants to pay more than the market norm, they are considered to be leading
the market.
Answer option A is incorrect. Lagging the market means an organization is paying less than the
market norms.
Answer option C is incorrect. Matching the market means the company is paying the standard
market rate.
Answer option D is incorrect. Beating the market isn’t an appropriate terminology for this scenario.
Question: 18
You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the
United States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
70-740 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
The EEO-1 Report, known as the Employer Information Report, must be submitted to the
Department of Labor’s Office by September 30 of each year for employers with 100 or more
employees.
Answer option C is incorrect. January 1 is not a valid answer.
Answer option A is incorrect. April 15 is the tax filing deadline.
Answer option B is incorrect. All organizations with 100 or more employees must file the EEO-1
report by September 30, not the anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees.

Question: 19
As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee’s rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
70-740 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The OSHA poster with the employee’s rights is OSHA poster 3165.
Answer options D, C, and B are incorrect. The OSHA poster with the employee’s rights is OSHA
poster 3165.
Question: 20
Question: Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you’re to keep
abreast of market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What
component of the HR Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C
Explanation:
The HR Professional in this role of the catalyst is involved in the HR practices, trends, business needs,
and understands the company’s culture and employee attitudes. Answer option D is incorrect. The
consultation role helps to define the overall organizational strategy.
Answer option B is incorrect. The policies and procedures role establishes and controls the HR
processes, employee programs, and ensures fair treatment for employees.
Answer option A is incorrect. The programs and processes role oversees programs to attract and
motivate employees, and promotes employee satisfaction and performance.

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Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 48

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3.LIMITATION OF LIABILITY
IN NO EVENT SHALL RSA, THE SECURITY DIVISION OF EMC BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT,
CONSEQUENTIAL, INCIDENTAL, OR SPECIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO
LOSS OF BUSINESS PROFITS) ARISING FROM OR RELATED TO YOUR CERTIFICATION,
FAILURE TO ACHIEVE CERTIFICATION, OR USE OF OR INABILITY TO USE THE RSA
CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL LOGO OR DESIGNATIONS, OR ARISING FROM OR
RELATED TO THE TERMINATION OF YOUR CERTIFICATION, EVEN IF RSA, THE SECURITY
DIVISION OF EMC HAS BEEN ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGES. BECAUSE
SOME STATES DO NOT ALLOW THE EXCLUSION OR LIMITATION OF LIABILITY FOR
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YOU.

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liability, damage, cost or expense (including reasonable legal fees) arising out of:
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Your use of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and/or the RSA Certified Security

Professional designation(s) in a manner which is in any way inconsistent with the terms of the RSA
Certified Security Professional Agreement;
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By reason of Your performance or non-performance as a RSA Certified Security Professional; or
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RSA Security’s termination of the RSA Certified Security Professional 70-741 exam Agreement.
In the event RSA, The Security Division of EMC seeks indemnification from You under this Section,
RSA will immediately notify You in writing of any claim or proceeding brought against it for which it
seeks indemnification. In no event may You enter into any third-party agreements that would, in any
manner whatsoever, affect the rights of, or bind, RSA, The Security Division of EMC in any manner,
without the prior written consent of RSA, The Security Division of EMC.

5. REPRESENTATIONS
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Program recognize that such certification is a privilege that must be both earned and maintained. In
support of this, You represent that all business You conduct in Your capacity as an RSA Certified
Security Professional, and all services You provide concerning RSA’s products, shall be performed in
a manner that:
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Does not, in any way, harm RSA’s reputation;
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Avoids making any representations, warranties, or guarantees to customers on behalf of RSA 70-741 dumps, The
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Complies with all applicable U.S. export regulations and other applicable governmental laws and
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Complies with copyright and other intellectual property and proprietary rights protections for RSA’s
products.
6. NON-DISCLOSURE AGREEMENT
You expressly undertake to retain, in confidence, all information and know-how transmitted to You by
RSA, The Security Division of EMC that RSA has identified as being proprietary and/or confidential or
that, by the nature of the circumstances surrounding its disclosure, ought in good faith to be treated as
proprietary and/or confidential, and You will make no use of such information and know-how except
under the terms and during the existence of the Non-Disclosure Agreement.
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and materials are subject to these confidentiality and non-disclosure obligations, and may not be
disclosed to or discussed with others, or posted 70-741 pdf or published in any forum or through any medium.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, You shall have no obligation to maintain the confidentiality of
information that:
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Has become generally available to the public through no wrongful act on Your part;
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Has been independently developed; or
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Is known to be free of restrictions.
Further, You may disclose confidential information as required by governmental or judicial order,
provided You give RSA prompt written notice prior to such disclosure, and comply with any protective
order (or equivalent) imposed on such disclosure.
Your obligation under this Section shall survive the expiration or termination of the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement and continue after any termination of said Agreement.
7. TERMINATION
Termination By Either Party:
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Either party may terminate the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement at any time, with or
without cause.
Immediate Termination By RSA:
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Without prejudice to any rights RSA, The Security Division of EMC may have under the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement or in law, equity, or otherwise, and in addition to its rights outlined in
the previous paragraph, RSA, The Security Division of EMC 70-741 vce may terminate the RSA Certified Security
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Security Professional designations to which the Agreement relates, and termination of Your use of the
corresponding RSA Certified Security Professional Logo, upon the occurrence of any one of the
following events (the “Defaults”):
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Agreement, including, without limitation, the terms governing the use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional designations and Logo;
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information of RSA (including, but not limited to, any RSA Certified Security Professional certification
test materials or other RSA materials with respect to which You are under non-disclosure 70-741 exam obligation),
or pirate any RSA’s product, or otherwise infringe any other intellectual property right of RSA, or
engage in any other activities prohibited by law; or
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